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3 years ago

N2+7n+15=5. What's the answer

2 answers:

7 0

If the first term is n^2, then fisr make the equation =0, which would be n^2+7n+10. So what number multiplies to positive 10 and adds up to positive 7? 5 and 2. So factor the equation into (n+5)(n+2)=0. To make the equation 0, one of the parts have to be zero. The cases would be n=-5, -2

Veseljchak [2.6K]3 years ago

4 0

N=- 5 or n= -2

Hope this helps!

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What is the probability of drawing the compliment of a king or a

inna [77]

Answer:

The probability of drawing the compliment of a king or a queen from a standard deck of playing cards = 0.846

Step-by-step explanation:

Step(i):-

Let 'S' be the sample space associated with the drawing of a card

n (S) = 52C₁ = 52

Let E₁ be the event of the card drawn being a king

$n( E_{1} ) = 4 _{C_{1} } = 4$

Let E₂ be the event of the card drawn being a queen

$n( E_{2} ) = 4 _{C_{1} } = 4$

But E₁ and E₂ are mutually exclusive events

since E₁ U E₂ is the event of drawing a king or a queen

step(ii):-

The probability of drawing of a king or a queen from a standard deck of playing cards

P( E₁ U E₂ ) = P(E₁) +P(E₂)

$= \frac{4}{52} + \frac{4}{52}$

P( E₁ U E₂ ) = $\frac{8}{52}$

step(iii):-

The probability of drawing the compliment of a king or a queen from a standard deck of playing cards

$P(E_{1}UE_{2}) ^{-} = 1- P(E_{1} U E_{2} )$

$P(E_{1}UE_{2}) ^{-} = 1- \frac{8}{52}$

$P(E_{1}UE_{2}) ^{-} = \frac{52-8}{52} = \frac{44}{52} = 0.846$

Conclusion:-

The probability of drawing the compliment of a king or a queen from a standard deck of playing cards = 0.846

5 0

2 years ago

What is the pythagorean therum

Nimfa-mama [501]

The Pythagorean theorem is a^2 + b^2 = c^2. You use it when solving for the sides of a triangle.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

5,345,238. How are the two 3 related

Lemur [1.5K]

Each just has different amounts of 0s

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A dog kennel charges $40 to board a dog for one night and $35 per night each night after that. Henry

Lostsunrise [7]

Answer: 6 nights

Step-by-step explanation:Step-by-step

Minus 40 from 215 then divide it by 35

8 0

2 years ago

I report if u guess or answer randomly. Which confidence level would produce the widest interval when estimating the mean of a p

kap26 [50]

Answer:

B. 61%

Step-by-step explanation:

When we have the standard deviation of a sample, we use the t-distribution.

The width of an interval is related to the margin of error, which is given by the following equation:

M = T*s

In which T is related to the confidence level(and the sample size) and s is the standard deviation of the sample. Higher confidence levels have higher values of T.

A higher margin of error means that the interval is wider. To have a higher margin of error, we desire a higher value of T, which is achieved with a higher confidence level.

So the correct answer is:

B. 61%

5 0

2 years ago