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3 years ago

What advantages does an electromagnet have over a permanent magnet?

Physics

1 answer:

KonstantinChe [14]3 years ago

4 0

Electromagnets can be turned off, this makes it easier to release things from the magnetic field.

Hope this helps :)

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An astronaut exploring a distant solar system lands on an unnamed planet with a radius of 2530 km. When the astronaut jumps upwa

Natali [406]

Answer:

1.38*10^18 kg

Explanation:

According to the Newton's law of universal gravitation:

$F=G*\frac{m_a*m_p}{r^2}$

where:

G= Gravitational constant (6.674×10−11 N · (m/kg)2)

ma= mass of the astronaut

mp= mass of the planet

$F=m_a.a\\(v_f )^2=(v_o)^2+2.a.\Delta y\\\\a=\frac{(v_f)^2-(v_o)^2}{2.\Delta y}\\\\a=\frac{(0)^2-(4.29m/s)^2}{2.0.64m}=14.38m/s^2\\\\F=m_a*14.38m/s^2$

so:

$m_a*14.38m/s^2=(6.674*10^{-11}N.(m/kg)^2)*\frac{m_a.m_p}{(2.530*10^3m)^2}\\m_p=\frac{14.38m/s^2(2.530*10^3m)^2}{(6.674*10^{-11}N.(m/kg)^2)}\\\\m_p=1.38*10^{18}kg$

7 0

3 years ago

Consider two thin, coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b푏 (a

Wittaler [7]

Answer:

electric potential, V = -q(a²- b²)/8π∈₀r³

Explanation:

Question (in proper order)

Consider two thin coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b (b < a) and charges q and -q, respectively. Determine the potential at large distances from the rings

<em>consider the attached diagram below</em>

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the outer charged ring with radius a is as given below

Va = q/4π∈₀ [1/(a² + b²)¹/²]

$Va = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Also

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the inner charged ring with radius b is

$Vb = \frac{-q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Sum of the potential at point p is

V = Va + Vb

that is

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } + \frac{-q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }]$

the expression below can be written as the equivalent

$\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + a^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

likewise,

$\frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + b^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

hence,

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

1/r is common to both equation

hence, we have it out and joined to the 4π∈₀ denominator that is outside

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

by reciprocal rule

1/a² = a⁻²

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} - {(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2}]$

by binomial expansion of fractional powers

where $(1+a)^{n} =1+na+\frac{n(n-1)a^{2} }{2!}+ \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)a^{3}}{3!}+...$

if we expand the expression we have the equivalent as shown

${(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

also,

${(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

the above equation becomes

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [((1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } ) - (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } - 1+\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } +\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]\\\\V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } -\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * \frac{1}{2r^{2} } *(b^{2} -a^{2} )$

$V = \frac{q}{8\pi e0 r^{3} } * (b^{2} -a^{2} )$

Answer

$V = \frac{q (b^{2} -a^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }$

$V = \frac{-q (a^{2} -b^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }$

8 0

3 years ago

• 2. A 70 kg man on a 100 kg boat throws a ball. The boat moves backwards 5 meters in 10 seconds. What is

Kipish [7]

Answer:

0.5 m/sec

Explanation:

v=S÷t

=5÷10

v=0.5 m/sec

6 0

3 years ago

Help

photoshop1234 [79]

Answer:

It conserves both energy and momentum in the collision at the same time. By design, when the balls collide the strings that hold them up are vertical (assuming balls are only swung from one side).

Explanation:

Hope This Helps!!

7 0

3 years ago

The direction of the buoyant force on an object placed in fluid is

NemiM [27]

An upwards direction

5 0

3 years ago