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lilavasa [31]
3 years ago
15

Why do you think the area swept out by a planet in a given period of time remains constant, even as the planet speeds up and slo

ws down?
Physics
2 answers:
Levart [38]3 years ago
6 0
Not sure this is entirely right but hey why not, right. <span> A planet orbiting a star orbits in an ellipse. Sometimes it's closer to the star and sometimes it's further. When it's closer to the star, the gravity on the planet from the star is stronger, so the planet speeds up. The area the planet sweeps over is equal because when it speeds up the length covered along the orbital path is greater, but it is also closer to the star, and that dimension is decreased. And because of our very intelligently designed and organized universe, these two factors cancel each other out perfectly </span>
<span>Hope I helped in some way!

</span>
Marina86 [1]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Since there is no torque on the planet with respect to position of Sun

So the angular momentum of the planet is always constant

hence the rate of change in area with respect to sun is always constant

Explanation:

As we know that rate of area swept by the planet is given as

v_a = \frac{dA}{dt}

here we know that small area swept by the planet is given as

dA = \frac{1}{2}r^2\theta

now rate of area swept by the planet is given as

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{1}{2}r^2\frac{d\theta}{dt}

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{1}{2}r^2\omega

so we have

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{1}{2m}(mr^2\omega)

here we know that angular momentum of the planet with respect to sun is given as

L = mr^2\omega

so we have

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{L}{2m}

since we know that there is no torque on the system of planet with respect to sun

So angular momentum of the planet will remain constant

hence we can say

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{L}{2m} = constant always

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The force of friction always opposes the _______.
Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

motion

Explanation:

uh look it up?

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A mover loads a 100 kg box into the back of a moving truck by
NeX [460]

Answer:

2.7

Explanation:

The following data were obtained from the question:

Mass (m) of box = 100 Kg

Length (L) of ramp = 4 m

Height (H) of ramp = 1.5 m

Mechanical advantage (MA) of ramp =?

Mechanical advantage of a ramp is simply defined as the ratio of the length of the ramp to the height of the ramp. Mathematically, it is given by:

Mechanical Advantage = Lenght / height

MA= L/H

With the above formula, we can obtain the mechanical advantage of the ramp as follow:

Length (L) of ramp = 4 m

Height (H) of ramp = 1.5 m

Mechanical advantage (MA) of ramp =?

MA = 4/1.5

MA = 2.7

Therefore, the mechanical advantage of the ramp is 2.7

3 0
2 years ago
Which one of the following energy conversion devices has the lowest energy efficiency?
Anna35 [415]

Answer:

A) incandescent ligth bulb, its efficiency is about 10%

Explanation:

The incandescent bulb, that is, the well-known focus with its warm light, was one of the most useful inventions of the 19th century although its use is currently considered very inefficient. These lamps waste between 80 and 90 percent of the total electricity they consume by turning it into heat. The metal filament thus heated and which is the central part of the bulb, only converts the remaining energy into light. Its service life ranges from 750 to 1,000 hours.

This is why they are used in ovens for food preparation, because of the large amount of heat they generate.

The steam boiler in a power plant depends on the fuel that it is using, but a coal-fired power plant with modern technology its efficiency is about 40%

Electric motor are around 85-92%

In order to better understand the concept of efficiency it is as if we pay 100 dollars of gasoline for our weekly use, but of that 100 dollars the car only uses 10 dollars to do that activity the rest of the money the 90 dollars were lost because of the inefficiencies of the vehicle.

3 0
3 years ago
A 7.00-kg object accelerates from rest to a final velocity in 55 seconds. If the magnitude of the
Len [333]

Answer:

The final velocity of the object is 330 m/s.

Explanation:

To solve this problem, we first must find the acceleration of the object.  We can do this using Newton's Second Law, given by the following equation:

F = ma

If we plug in the values that we are given in the problem, we get:

42 = 7 (a)

To solve for a, we simply divide both sides of the equation by 7.

42/7 = 7a/7

a = 6 m/s^2

Next, we should write out all of the information we have and what we are looking for.

a = 6 m/s^2

v1 = 0 m/s

t  = 55 s

v2 = ?

We can use a kinematic equation to solve this problem.  We should use:

v2 = v1 + at

If we plug in the values listed above, we should get:

v2 = 0 + (6)(55)

Next, we should solve the problem by performing the multiplication on the right side of the equation.

v2 = 330 m/s

Therefore, the final velocity reached by the object is 330 m/s.

Hope this helps!

7 0
3 years ago
The acceleration of a vertically thrown ball at the top of its path is?
ser-zykov [4K]
C between zero and g
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2 years ago
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