Answer:
$28,000,000
Explanation:
EBIT = EBITDA - depreciation - amortization
= $500 - $ 80 - $ 40
= $380 million
Net Income = EBIT - Tax @40%
= $380 - $152
= $228 million
Cash Flow from operating Activities:
= Net Income - Increase in NWC (after reducing cash increase) + Back Depreciation + Back Amortization
= $228 - $50 + $ 80 + $ 40
= $298,000,000
Free cash Flow after Investing Activities:
= Cash Flow from operating Activities - Capital expenditure - Investment in another firm
= $298,000,000 - $120,000,000 - $150,000,000
= $28,000,000
Answer:
FALSE: If the return is riskless and never deviates from its mean, the variance is equal to one.
Explanation:
If the return is riskless and never deviates from its mean, the variance is equal to ZERO.
Variance is calculated by taking the sum of square of deviations from the mean.
Deviations is calculated by subtracting the returns from their mean.
If the return is riskless and <em>never deviates </em>from its mean, the <em>deviations would always be zero</em>, hence the sum of square of them (variance) would also be zero.
When a company freezes hiring and tightens expenses due to decreased demand for its products or services, it is involved in a(n) defensive strategy.
This is further explained below.
<h3>What is
a defensive strategy. ?</h3>
Generally, The term "defensive strategy" refers to a kind of marketing technique that assists businesses in retaining prized clients in the face of potential poaching by other businesses.
Other businesses that are either situated in the same market category as one's own or that sell comparable goods to the same demographic of customers are considered to be one's "competitors."
In conclusion, A corporation is engaging in a defensive strategy when, as a result of falling consumer demand for its goods or services, it puts a halt to new employee recruiting and reduces its overall spending.
Read more about defensive strategy.
brainly.com/question/24907237
#SPJ4
Answer:
A) Interest on 4-month note is calculated as: $1,000 × 6% × 2 / 12
Explanation:
First of all, the 6% interest is annual, so any interest accrued must be calculated using periods equivalent to 1/12.
Then the time is only 2 months (November and December)
The only option that fits is A:
principal ($1,000) x 6% (interest rate) x 2/12 (2 periods) = $10
Solution:
The length of the potential (or revised length) is the term (or adjusted term) of the underlying contract, then the revised length of the futures contract:
=20/1.05 = 19.048 years
Currently, we will determine how many contracts (NF) to offset the loss of net value:
∆E should be equal to decline in the value of F:
∆F = -0.828 m = - MD
∆r = -19.048 * (0.382 m.)
NF* 0.005
==> NF = -0.828 / [-19.048 * (0.382 m)*0.005]
= 22.76 contracts
Therefore, in 22,76 potential contracts we also have to take a long place with the 20-year zero coupon bond as the reference.