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velikii [3]
3 years ago
14

Is the relation {(1, 3), (–4, 0), (3, 1), (0, 4), (2, 3)} a function? Why or why not? No, the range value 3 corresponds to two d

omain values, 1 and 2. Yes, there is no value in the domain that corresponds to more than one value of the range. Yes, the range value 3 corresponds to two domain values, 1 and 2. No, there is no value in the domain that corresponds to more than one value of the range.
Mathematics
2 answers:
Lynna [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Yes, there is no value in the domain that corresponds to ore than one value of the range. Hope I helped


yaroslaw [1]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:  The correct option is

(2). Yes, there is no value in the domain that corresponds to more than one value of the range.

Step-by-step explanation:  We are given to check whether the following relation is a function or not.

R=\{(1, 3), (-4, 0), (3, 1), (0, 4), (2, 3)\}.

We know that,

the first element of each ordered pair in the relation above makes the domain and the second element of each ordered pair makes the range.

So, the domain will be  D=\{1,-4,3,0,2\},

and the range will be  R=\{3,0,1,4,3\}.

A RELATION will be a function if each value in the domain correspond to one and only one value in the range.

Since, in the set R, there is no value in the domain that corresponds to more than one value of the range, so

The given relation 'R' is a FUNCTION.

Thus, the correct option is

(2). Yes, there is no value in the domain that corresponds to more than one value of the range.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

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In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

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