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Andrew [12]
3 years ago
12

We say a function f: A -> B is injective (one-to-one) iff for all xE A, r2A, f(x1) = f(x2) implies r = r2. What does it mean

for a function not to be injective?
Mathematics
1 answer:
san4es73 [151]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

By definition a function f:A\rightarrow B is <em>injective</em> if and only if f(x_1)=f(x_2) implies x_1=x_2. Notice that this means that different elements of the domain have different images. That is why injective functions are also called one-to-one, because each element from A has only one image in B.

Now, if a function is not injective means that there are, at least, two elements of the domain with the same image. A very good example is the function f(x)=x^2. Recall that f(-1) = (-1)^2=(1)^2=f(1).

For real functions of a real variable f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R} we have a geometrical interpretation of injective property. The function f is injective if for each line we draw parallel to the X-axis, it has, at most, one intersect with the graph of f. Then, if one line has more than one intercept, then the function is not injective.

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A first order differential equation \frac{\mathrm{d} y}{\mathrm{d} x}=f\left ( x,y \right ) is said to be homogeneous if f(tx,ty)=f(x,y) for all t.

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