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Nata [24]
4 years ago
10

One degree kelvin equals one degree Fahrenheit ? True or false

Physics
1 answer:
choli [55]4 years ago
7 0
The answer is False. 1 degree kelvin is about -400 degrees Fahrenheit
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A space probe recovered an 8.5-kg sample of rocks from the surface of Mars. The acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 meter
Nataliya [291]

Answer: 31N

Explanation:F = m x a

F = 8.5 x 3.7

F = 31.45

F = 31 (rounded)

F = 31 N

3 0
3 years ago
What is your understanding of repetition and replication in science?
strojnjashka [21]
From my understanding, the two are opposite. Let me give you each word and what it scientifically means to me.

repetition
occurs when an activity is repeated by the same person

replication
occurs when an activity is repeated by a different person


I hope this completely answers your question! If you need further explanation, please let me know!
~Brooke❤️
5 0
3 years ago
Is it possible for an inverted pyramid to exist, like the one show here? Explain your answer.
Korvikt [17]

Answer:

Not possible, if we talk about real pyramids

Explanation:

There is no image shown in the question statement. However if we talk about the pyramids as we find them in Egypt, we cannot get a stable inverted pyramid because of the difficulty in terms of balancing it from its centre of mass. In theory one might balance the forces, but in actual, to balance all the load of the structure just on a point is extremely difficult.

However, the term inverted pyramid can be found in ecological system and also used as metaphors in English literature

5 0
3 years ago
There is a current I flowing in a clockwise direction in a square loop of wire that is in the plane of the paper. If the magneti
MArishka [77]

Answer:

IBL²

Explanation:

Given that

Current flowing in the wire, is I

Magnetic field towards the right, is B

Length of each side of the loop, is L

Number of windings on the loop, is N

Torque exerted on the wire, is T

The torque, T is usually given by the formula

Torque, T = NBIAsinθ,

and if N = 1 and sinθ = 1 also, then we have

Torque, T = BIA

And we know that Area A from this particular question will be given as = L². If we then substitute A for L², we then have

Torque, T = IBL²

4 0
3 years ago
20 POINTS
Harlamova29_29 [7]

Answer: check the link

hope it helps

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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