Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:
A. 300in^2
Step-by-step explanation:
Area=LWH
15*10*2=300
All the steps were correct except the final statement. The
mistake was in Line 6.
Line 6 triangle ABC is congruent to triangle EFD by
SAS.
<span>This does not follow. The SAS postulate states
that if two sides and the included angle of one triangle is congruent to two sides
and the included angle of another triangle. The student only proved that one side
of the triangle (AC) is congruent to the side of another triangle (EF) .</span>
Answer:
x = 4
Step-by-step explanation:
-5w + 7 - w + 4 = -13
-5w - w + 7 + 4 = -13
-6x + 11 = -13
-6x = -13 - 11
-6x = -24
-6x/-6 = -24/-6
x = 4
hope this helps!
Answer:
The graph is attached below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the system of inequalities.
Isolate y for 
subtract x from both sides
simplify
Multiply both sides by -1 (reverse the inequality)
simplify
now solving
isolate y for
subtract x from both sides
simplify
Divide both sides by 2
Simplify
Graphing Method:
1. Graph each inequality separately
2. Choose a test point to determine which side of the line needs to be shaded
3. The solution to the system will be the area where the shadings from each inequality overlap one another.
Thus,
The graph is attached below.
