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4 years ago

If we compare the force of gravity too strong nuclear force we would conclude that

2 answers:

6 0

The force of gravity is much weaker than the strong nuclear force. But the strong nuclear force only acts over short distances, such as within the nuclues. The gravitational force can act over infinite distance.

Studentka2010 [4]4 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Force of gravity is weaker than strong nuclear force.

Force of gravity has infinite range where as strong nuclear force is a short range force.

Explanation:

The strong nuclear force and gravitational force are fundamental forces. Both have different characteristics. Gravitational force is the weakest force in nature where as the strong nuclear force is the strongest. Strong nuclear force binds the neutrons and protons in the nucleus of an atom. It is a short range force. Gravitational force exists between any two bodies having mass. It has infinite range.

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Streams pick up a greater load of sand and gravel as they leave a mountain range and flow across a lowland.

inessss [21]

B

because it will pick it up while coming down not just flowing on low land<span />

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3 years ago

The gravitational force of a star on an orbiting planet 1 is f1. planet 2, which is three times as massive as planet 1 and orbit

Margaret [11]

Let us consider two bodies having masses m and m' respectively.

Let they are separated by a distance of r from each other.

As per the Newtons law of gravitation ,the gravitational force between two bodies is given as - $F = G\frac{mm'}{r^{2} }$ where G is the gravitational force constant.

From the above we see that F ∝ mm' and $F\alpha \frac{1}{r^{2} }$

Let the orbital radius of planet A is $r_{1}$ = r and mass of planet is $m_{1}$ .

Let the mass of central star is m .

Hence the gravitational force for planet A is $f_{1} =G \frac{m_{1}*m }{r^{2} }$

For planet B the orbital radius $r_{2} =2r_{1}$ and mass $m_{2} = 3 m_{1}$

Hence the gravitational force $f_{2} =G\frac{m m_{2} }{r^{2} }$

$f_{2} =G\frac{m*3m_{1} }{[2r_{1}] ^{2} }$

$= \frac{3}{4} G\frac{mm_{1} }{r_{1} ^{2} }$

Hence the ratio is $\frac{f_{2} }{f_{1} } = \frac{\frac{3}{4}G mm_{1/r_{1} ^2} }{Gmm_{1}/r_{1} ^2 }$

$=\frac{3}{4}$ [ ans]

3 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

how could you prove to a skeptic that the beats are an interference effect that requires both sound sources? test out your metho

podryga [215]

Beats are interference patterns between two tones of different frequencies. To prove the skeptic first, play the recorded audio as there are no beats in it. Now take two sound sources with different frequencies. When both sources are turned on, we hear notes that rise and fall at equal intervals. That's what's called beats.

A frequency beat occurs when two waves with different frequencies overlap, causing alternating cycles of constructive and destructive interference between the waves.

When we tap the table with our finger, then put our ear to the table, and tap the table surface as far as 30 cm from our ear. Then the sound of beats on the table will sound louder when we put our ears on the table. So, it can be concluded that solid objects can conduct sound better than air. This is because the molecules or particles of solid objects are denser than air.

Learn more about the beat's frequency at brainly.com/question/14157895

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1 year ago

A car accelerates from rest at a rate of 6.50 m/s2. Determine thevelocity of the car at t = 4.00 s.

aksik [14]

Answer:

1.62 m/s2

Explanation:

6.50 divided by 4

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3 years ago

Is the following statement true or false? Because action and reaction forces are equal in magnitude, they will produce the same

Deffense [45]

Answer:

I think it's a true but I'm not the smartest

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4 years ago