Answer:
The constant value is
The net displacement is
Explanation:
If the acceleration as a function of time is given then, first of all, knowing that the units of acceleration should be we should have where stands for The dimension of k (these are just the units of k in a less formal way of saying it.
On the other hand we have only information about the velocity, but we only have the acceleration function, it turns out we can integrate the expression of acceleration in order to obtain the velocity as a function of time:
where as a constant of integration which should have units of in order to be consistent with the fact that it is a velocity function, it is therefore natural to think of as the initial velocity of the the particle.
Let's now get our hands dirty by integrating
.
By having the velocity as a function of time we can now use the conditions given at t=0 and t=6.
At t=0 we have:
At t=6 the particle start reversing direction, that means at that very instant it velocity should be zero in order to start traveling the other way. This can only mean the following
.
We have a full description now of the acceleration and the velocity function. In order to get the net displacement we need to integrate the velocity function
Where is the initial displacement. If we subtract on both sides we get the net displacement or distance traveled
Plugging the value of 6 above gives us the net displacement
.
Answer:
E) V=(m/M)v
Explanation:
Given that
Mass of the small ball = m
Initial velocity of the small ball = v
Mass of the larger ball = m
Initial velocity of the larger ball = 0
After the collision
The velocity of the small ball = 0
The velocity of the larger ball = V
There is no any external force that is why linear momentum will be conserve.
From linear momentum conservation
Pi=Pf
m v + M x 0 = m x 0 + M V
m v +0 = 0 + M V
Therefore the answer will be E.
E) V=(m/M)v
Sure enough !
Acceleration means any change in speed OR DIRECTION of motion.
So if something is moving in a circle or around a curve, even at constant
speed, its direction is changing, so acceleration is not zero.
Answer:
Frequency will be 4.30 kHz
Explanation:
We have inductance
And capacitance
Inductive reactance is given by
And capacitive reactance
As in question it is given that inductive reactance and capacitive reactance is same
So
We know that angular frequency
f = 4303.66 Hz =4.30 kHz