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vlada-n [284]
3 years ago
8

What happens to the efficiency of a ramp if friction is reduced?

Physics
1 answer:
love history [14]3 years ago
3 0
It's efficiency will increase
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A 0.35-kgkg cord is stretched between two supports, 7.4 mm apart. When one support is struck by a hammer, a transverse wave trav
Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

The tension in the string is T = 1.49*10^{-6}N.

Explanation:

For a string with tension T and linear density \mu_d carrying a transverse wave at speed v it is true that

v = \sqrt{\dfrac{T}{\mu_d} }

solving for T we get:

T = \dfrac{v^2}{\mu_d}.

Now, the transverse wave covers the distance of 7.4mm in 0.88s, which means it's speed is

v =\dfrac{7.4*10^{-3}m}{0.88s} \\\\v = 8.4*10^{-3}s

And it's linear density (mass per unit length) is

\mu_d = \dfrac{0.35kg}{7.4*10^{-3}m} \\\\\mu_d = 47.3kg/m

Therefore, the tension in the cord is

T = \dfrac{(8.4*10^{-3}m/s^2)^2}{47.3kg/m}.

\boxed{T = 1.5*10^{-6}N}

or in micro newtons

T =1.5\mu N

4 0
3 years ago
A 230-km-long high-voltage transmission line 2.0 cm in diameter carries a steady current of 1,100 A. If the conductor is copper
Molodets [167]

Answer:

28.23 years

Explanation:

I = 1100 A

L = 230 km = 230, 000 m

diameter = 2 cm

radius, r = 1 cm = 0.01 m

Area, A = 3.14 x 0.01 x 0.01 = 3.14 x 10^-4 m^2

n = 8.5 x 10^28 per cubic metre

Use the relation

I = n e A vd

vd = I / n e A

vd = 1100 / (8.5 x 10^28 x 1.6 x 10^-19 x 3.14 x 10^-4)

vd = 2.58 x 10^-4 m/s

Let time taken is t.

Distance = velocity x time

t = distance / velocity = L / vd

t = 230000 / (2.58 x 10^-4) = 8.91 x 10^8 second

t = 28.23 years

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following situations has more kinetic energy than potential energy?
MrMuchimi

Answer:

C. a rolling bowling ball

I just answered this question on my quiz.  

3 0
2 years ago
What is in the blank?
Vika [28.1K]
This is in the thermosphere which is at an altitude of 85-520km
8 0
3 years ago
Three beads are placed along a thin rod. The first bead, of mass m1 = 23 g, is placed a distance d1 = 1.1 cm from the left end o
Mila [183]

Answer:

a) x=\frac{m_{1}d_{1}+m_{2}(d_{1}+d_{2})+m_{3}(d_{1}+d_{2}+d_{3}  ) }{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3} }

b) x = 4.47 cm

c) x=\frac{m_{1}d_{2}+m_{2}(0)+m_{3}d_{3} }{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3} }

d) x = 1.48 cm

Explanation:

a) The center of mass is equal to:

x=\frac{m_{1}x_{1}+m_{2}x_{2}+m_{3}x_{3} }{m_{1}+m_{2} +m_{3}}

Where m is the mass of beads and x is the distances, if x₁ = d₁, x₂ = d₂ and x₃ = d₃

x=\frac{m_{1}d_{1}+m_{2}(d_{1}+d_{2})+m_{3}(d_{1}+d_{2}+d_{3}  ) }{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3} }

b) If

m₁ = 23g

m₂ = 15 g

m₃ = 58 g

d₁ = 1.1 cm

d₂ = 1.9 cm

d₃ = 3.2 cm

x=\frac{23*1.1+15*(1.1+1.9)+58(1.1+1.9+3.2) }{23+15+58 } =4.47cm

c) The center of the mass of the beads realtive to the center of bead is:

x=\frac{m_{1}d_{2}+m_{2}(0)+m_{3}d_{3} }{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3} }

d) x=\frac{23*(-1.9)+(15*0)+(58*3.2) }{23+15+58 } =1.48cm

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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