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Elina [12.6K]
3 years ago
12

What conversion factor is used to convert 20 cm to m

Physics
1 answer:
Anastaziya [24]3 years ago
7 0
The conversion factor you use is 100 cm = 1 m.
You can divide 20 by 100 to get the answer.
20 cm/100 cm =.2 m
Hope this helped!
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2. Find the time taken by the bus to reach the stop. need only group B, 2 answer
Molodets [167]

Answer:

t = 2 seconds

Explanation:

In 2nd question, the question is given the attached figure.

Initial speed of the bus, u = 0

Acceleration of the bus, a = 8 m/s²

Final speed, v = 16 m/s

We need to find the time taken by the car to reach the stop. Acceleration of an object is given by :

a=\dfrac{v-u}{t}

t is time taken

t=\dfrac{v-u}{a}\\\\t=\dfrac{16-0}{8}\\\\t=2\ s

The bus will take 2 seconds to reach the stop.

3 0
3 years ago
Two wires each carry 10.0 A of current (in opposite directions) and are 2.50 mm apart. What is the magnetic field 37.0 cm away a
lyudmila [28]

Answer:

see answer below

Explanation:

Before we do any kind of calculation, we need to convert the proper units of the exercise. All the units of distance must be in meters, so, let's change distance of the wire, and the magnetic field to meters:

Separation between the wires are 2.5 mm:

2.5 mm * (1 m / 1000 mm) = 0.0025 m

The distance of P from the bottom of the wires is 37 cm:

37 cm * (1 m/100 cm) = 0.37 m

The distance of P from the top of the wires is just the sum of the two distances:

R = 0.37 + 0.0025 = 0.3725 m

Now that we have the distance, we can determine the magnetic field, using the following expression:

B = B(bottom) - B(top)   or just B₂ - B₁

And B = μ₀ I / 2πR

Replacing in the above expression we have:

B = μ₀ I / 2π ( 1/R₂ - 1/R₁)

Now we can determine the magnetic field:

B = (4πx10⁻⁷ * 10 / 2π) (1/0.37 - 1/0.3725)

<h2>B = 3.63x10⁻⁸ T</h2><h2></h2>

Which means that the magnetic field is out of the page.

Hope this helps

4 0
3 years ago
(I) In a ballistic pendulum experiment, projectile 1 results in a maximum height h of the pendulum equal to 2.6 cm. A second pro
Kipish [7]

Answer:

The second projectile was 1.41 times faster than the first.

Explanation:

In the ballistic pendulum experiment, the speed (v) of the projectile is given by:  

v = \frac{m + M}{m} \cdot \sqrt{2gh}

<em>where m: is the mass of the projectile, M: is the mass of the pendulum, g: is the gravitational constant and h: is the maximum height of the pendulum.   </em>

To know how many times faster was the second projectile than the first, we need to take the ratio for the velocities for the projectiles 2 and 1:    

\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}} = \frac{\frac{m_{2} + M}{m_{2}} \cdot \sqrt{2gh_{2}}}{\frac{m_{1} + M}{m_{1}} \cdot \sqrt{2gh_{1}}}           (1)

<em>where m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the projectiles 1 and 2, respectively, and h₁ and h₂ are the maximum height reached by the pendulum by the projectiles 1 and 2, respectively.  </em>

Since the projectile 1 has the same mass that the projectile 2, we can simplify equation (1):

\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}} = \frac{\sqrt{h_{2}}}{\sqrt{h_{1}}}  

\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}} = \frac{\sqrt{5.2 cm}}{\sqrt{2.6 cm}}

\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}} = 1.41  

Therefore, the second projectile was 1.41 times faster than the first.  

I hope it helps you!

8 0
3 years ago
Describe the importance of conservative forces to conservation of energy.
qwelly [4]
Not sure but just coming to say good luck and take your time
6 0
3 years ago
The carrot hangs from the ceiling by two ropes (1 and 2).
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

The Answer is D!

Explanation:

I checked it on Khan Academy.

3 0
3 years ago
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