Answer:
a = 8 m/s^2, Ffriction = 10 N, μk = 0.205
Explanation:
a. Force = Mass*Acceleration,
(since you didn't add the units..."5 block"....for the mass, I will assume it to be in kg, per SI units)
40 N = 5 kg*acceleration,
a = 40/5 = 8 m/s^2
b. As you know newtons second law (F=m*a) is actually in the form Fnet = m*a. Which means that if the friction force comes into play, it would be Fapplied - Ffriction = m*a.
Fapplied - Ffriction = m*a,
40 - Ffriction = 5*6,
40 - Ffriction = 30,
Ffriction = 40 - 30 = 10 N
c. The coefficient of kinetic friction is calculated by the formula "Ffriction = μk*Fnormal".
10 = μk*Fnormal (Fnormal = m*g = 5*9.8)
10 = μk*49,
μk=10/49 ≈ 0.205
Answer:
im pretty sure its 10 m/s but its kinda hard sorry
Explanation:
Answer: machine's efficiency = 82.2%
Explanation:
Efficiency of a machine is the capability of a machine to convert input to output without waste.
It can be expressed as
Efficiency = output/ input × 100%
Output = 7,023N
Imput = 8,542N
Efficiency = 7,023N/8,542N × 100%
Efficiency = 82.2%
Sodium Hydroxide is highly Basic
Answer:
Explanation:
In order to measure the coefficient of friction , we apply external force to move the body . When external force comes in motion , we adjust the external force so that it moves with zero acceleration or uniform velocity . In this case external force becomes equal to kinetic frictional force and then net force becomes zero because
net force = mass x acceleration = m x 0 = 0
Now frictional force = μ mg where μ is coefficient of kinetic friction
so F = μ mg where F is external force applied
μ = F / mg
Hence , to make external force equal to frictional force , it is necessary to make acceleration of body zero .
