Answer: Rock require larger drag force and to achieve it rock need to move at a very high terminal velocity.
Explanation: Terminal velocity is defined as the final velocity attained by an object falling under the gravity. At this moment weight is balanced by the air resistance or drag force and body falls with zero acceleration i.e. with a constant velocity.
Case 1: Terminal velocity of a piece of tissue paper.
The weight of tissue paper is very less and it experiences an air resistance while falling downward under the effect of gravity.
Downward gravitational force, F = mg
Upward air resistance or friction or drag force will be 
So, paper will attain terminal velocity when mg =
Case 2: Rock is very heavy and require larger air resistance to balance the weight of rock relative to the tissue paper case.
Downward force on rock, F = Mg
Drag force =
Rock will attain terminal velocity when Mg =
Mg > mg
so,
>
And rock require larger drag force and to achieve it rock need to move at a very high terminal velocity.
First, we calculate for the weight of the object by multiplying the given mass by the acceleration due to gravity which is equal to 9.8 m/s²
Weight = (14 kg)(9.8 m/s²)
Weight = 137.2 N
The component of the weight that is along the surface of the inclined plane is equal to this weight times the sine of the given angle.
Weight = (137.2 N)(sin 52°)
weight = 108.1 N
The hawk’s centripetal acceleration is 2.23 m/s²
The magnitude of the acceleration under new conditions is 2.316 m/s²
radius of the horizontal arc = 10.3 m
the initial constant speed = 4.8 m/s
we know that the centripetal acceleration is given by
= 
= 23.04/10.3
= 2.23 m/s²
It continues to fly but now with some tangential acceleration
= 0.63 m/s²
therefore the net value of acceleration is given by the resultant of the centripetal acceleration and the tangential acceleration
so
= 
= 
= 2.316 m/s²
So the magnitude of net acceleration will become 2.316 m/s².
learn more about acceleration here :
brainly.com/question/11560829
#SPJ4
If it produces 20J of light energy in a second, then that 20J is the 10% of the supply that becomes useful output.
20 J/s = 10% of Supply
20 J/s = (0.1) x (Supply)
Divide each side by 0.1:
Supply = (20 J/s) / (0.1)
<em>Supply = 200 J/s </em>(200 watts)
========================
Here's something to think about: What could you do to make the lamp more efficient ? Answer: Use it for a heater !
If you use it for a heater, then the HEAT is the 'useful' part, and the light is the part that you really don't care about. Suddenly ... bada-boom ... the lamp is 90% efficient !
Answer:
Approximately 1.62 × 10⁻⁴ V.
Explanation:
The average EMF in the coil is equal to
,
Why does this formula work?
By Faraday's Law of Induction, the EMF
induced in a coil (one loop) is equal to the rate of change in the magnetic flux
through the coil.
.
Finding the average EMF in the coil is similar to finding the average velocity.
.
However, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, integration reverts the action of differentiation. That is:
.
Hence the equation
.
Note that information about the constant term in the original function will be lost. However, since this integral is a definite one, the constant term in
won't matter.
Apply this formula to this question. Note that
, the magnetic flux through the coil, can be calculated with the equation
.
For this question,
is the strength of the magnetic field.
is the area of the coil.
is the number of loops in the coil.
is the angle between the field lines and the coil. - At
, the field lines are parallel to the coil,
. - At
, the field lines are perpendicular to the coil,
.
Initial flux:
.
Final flux:
.
Average EMF, which is the same as the average rate of change in flux:
.