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3 years ago

The interior angles formed by the sides of a pentagon have measures that sum to 540°.

Mathematics

1 answer:

alexgriva [62]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The Solution to the Sum

Your solution after multiplying the 3 with the 180 degrees is 540 degrees. This is true for any pentagon you have. Regular pentagons where all the sides and angles are the same will have a sum of interior angles of 540 degrees.

PLEASE SAID THANKS

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Helppppppppppppppppppppppppp

kumpel [21]

Answer:
x = 10

Explanation:
Note the following rules before we begin:
2 ln(a) = ln (a²)
ln (a) + ln (b) = ln (ab)

Now, for the given:
ln(20) + ln(5) = 2 ln(x)
ln(20*5) = ln(x²)
ln(100) = ln(x²)

This means that:
100 = x²
Therefore:
either x = 10 .........> acceped
or x = -10 .........> rejected as no negatives are allowed within ln functions

Hope this helps :)

5 0

3 years ago

Find the probability of at least 6 failures in 7 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success in any one

oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)$

And we can find the individual probabilities:

$P(X=6)=(7C6)(0.91)^6 (1-0.91)^{7-6}=0.358$

$P(X=7)=(7C7)(0.91)^7 (1-0.91)^{7-7}=0.517$

And replacing we got:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)= 0.358+0.517=0.875$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=7, p=1-0.09=0.91)$

The probability associated to a failure would be p =1-0.09 = 0.91

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want to find this probability:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)$

And we can find the individual probabilities:

$P(X=6)=(7C6)(0.91)^6 (1-0.91)^{7-6}=0.358$

$P(X=7)=(7C7)(0.91)^7 (1-0.91)^{7-7}=0.517$

And replacing we got:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)= 0.358+0.517=0.875$

6 0

3 years ago

If a*b=a^2-b^3, then what is the value of 3*-2

mezya [45]

I think it’s -6 but I’m not sure

3 0

2 years ago

The M&M’s website says that 24% of milk chocolate M&M’s are blue. Suppose that we buy 5 small packets of milk chocolate

SVEN [57.7K]

Answer:

The correct option is A: 24%, 24%, 24%, 24%, 24%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the overall probability of M&M's produced is stated as 24% and the packets are filled with different colored candies at random, the probability of blue colored candies in each packet cannot be ascertained individually.

Hope that answers the question, have a great day!

7 0

3 years ago

Lilly takes a train each day to work that averages 35 miles per hour. On her way home, her train ride follows the same path and

Klio2033 [76]

Answer: $2.5=\frac{n}{35}+\frac{n}{45}$