Answer:
The journal entry for the following is shown below:
Explanation:
The journal entry for the following is as follows:
Bad Debts Expense A/c................................Dr $3,600
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts A/c......Cr $3,600
Being the adjusting entry for bad debt expense
Working Note:
Using the percentage of accounts receivable computing the amount of bad debt expense as:
Allowance for doubtful accounts = Accounts receivable × %
= $120,000 × 4%
= $4,800
Now, computing the bade debt expense as:
Bad debt expense = Allowance for doubtful debts - Credit balance
= $4,800 - $1200
= $3,600
Answer:
D.)
the highest IRR
Explanation:
Here are the options to the question :
A.)
the IRR that is closest to zero
B.)
a negative IRR
C.)
the lowest IRR
D.)
the highest IRR
IRR is a capital budgeting method.
Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after-tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested
The higher the IRR, the more profitable the project is.
In the absence of certain restrictions, the project with the highest IRR should be chosen
Interest expense is not Incurred on long-term liabilities.
Option i) Incurred on long-term liability.
Interest expenses are not recorded in the balance sheet. It should be recorded in the income statement.
The interest expense is a non-operating expense recorded on the expenses side of the income statement and it does not show as notes payable.
The interest expense is shown as a fixed cost or fixed expense it will be changed as based on the short-term changes or completion of payable.
The interest expense shows a factor in determining a company's borrowing risk.
Learn more about interest expenses at
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It’s clearly contributing to increased integration of labor markets and closing the wage gap between workers in advanced and developing economies, especially through the spread of technology. It also plays a part in increasing domestic & income inequality ^^
Answer:
$58.729
Explanation:
To find the answer, we need to use the present value of an annuity formula.
The formula is:
P = X [(1 - (1 + i)^-n) / i ]
Where X is the annual instalment
P is the present value of the investment (500,000 in this case)(
i is the interest rate (10% in this case)
and n is the number of periods (20 years in this case)
We now plug the amounts into the formula:
500,000 = X [ (1 - (1 + 0.10)^-20) / 0.10 ]
500,000 = X [8.51356]
500,000 / 8.51356 = X
58,729 = X
So the value of the equal annual instalment will be $58.729
