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3 years ago

Please solve for h: V=πr²h

1 answer:

8 0

Solve for h:V = π h r^2
V = h π r^2 is equivalent to h π r^2 = V:π h r^2 = V
Divide both sides by π r^2:
Answer: h = V/(π r^2)

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Can you help me with my geometry

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Answer:

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3 years ago

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The first equation from the previous system of

VladimirAG [237]

Answer: (3, -2)

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution to the system is where the graphs intersect.

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2 years ago

A ping pong ball is drawn at random from an urn consisting of balls numbered 2 through 10. A player wins 1 dollar if the number

choli [55]

Answer:

The expected value is defined as:

EV = ∑xₙ*pₙ

Where xₙ represents the n-th event, and pₙ is the probability of that event.

Now, the events are:

The possible outcomes are: {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} 9 in total.

Winning $1, when the number is odd. The outcomes in this case are: {3. 5. 7. 9}

4 out of 9, then the probability is p = 4/9.

Lossing $1 when the number is even. The outcomes in this case are {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}

5 out of 9, the probability is p = 5/9.

Then the expected value is:

EV = (4/9)*$1 - (5/9)*$1 = (-1/9)*$1 = -$0.11...

4 0

4 years ago

Pls help “Given f(x)=2x^2-5x evaluate f(-4).”

Molodets [167]

Step-by-step explanation:

2x^2-5x

f(x)= 2(4)^2-5(4)

2(16)-20

32-20= 12

6 0

3 years ago

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I need help pleaseeeeee

Kruka [31]

Given:

$\Delta MAT\cong \Delta MHT$ and $m\angle 2=82^\circ$ .

To find:

Whether $m\angle 1=47^\circ$ is possible or not.

Solution:

We have,

$\Delta MAT\cong \Delta MHT$

$\angle AMT\cong \angle HMT$ (CPCTC)

$m\angle 3=m\angle 8$ ...(i)

And,

$m\angle 1=m\angle 8$ ...(ii) (Vertically opposite angles)

From (i) and (ii), we get

$m\angle 1=m\angle 3$ ...(iii)

Now,

$m\angle 1+m\angle 2+m\angle 3=180^\circ$ (Linear pair)

$m\angle 1+82^\circ+m\angle 1=180^\circ$ (Using (iii))

$2m\angle 1=180^\circ-82^\circ$

$2m\angle 1=98^\circ$

Divide both sides by 2.

$m\angle 1=\dfrac{98^\circ}{2}$

$m\angle 1=49^\circ$

The measure of angle 1 is 49 degrees so it cannot be equal to 47 degrees.

Therefore, the required answer is "no", the given statement $m\angle 1=47^\circ$ is not possible.

3 0

3 years ago