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Lunna [17]
3 years ago
9

A traveling electromagnetic wave in a vacuum has an electric field amplitude of 93.3 V/m. Calculate the intensity S of this wave

. Then, determine the amount of energy U that flows through area of 0.0287 m 2 over an interval of 13.7 s, assuming that the area is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. S
Physics
1 answer:
7nadin3 [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Intensity = 11.56W/m²

The energy flowing through the given area is 4.55 J

Explanation:

The expression for the intensity of the electromagnetic wave is,

I = \frac{1}{2} C{ {\varepsilon _0}E_m^2

Here,\varepsilon _0 is the permittivity of the free space,

E_m  is the electric field amplitude and

c is the speed of the light.

substitute

⁸m/s for c

8.85×10  −12  C² /N⋅m² for {\varepsilon _0}

and 93.3 V/m for {E_{\rm{m}

I = \frac{1}{2} \times (3\times10^8)\times(8.85\times10^-^1^2)(93.3)\\\\I = 11.56W/m^2

The expression for the energy is,

E = I×A×t

Here, I is the intensity of the electromagnetic wave,

A is the area, and

t is the time.

Substitute

11.56W/m² for I

0.0287m ² for A

13.7s for t

E = (11.56)\times(0,0287)\times(13.7)\\E = 4.55J

The energy flowing through the given area is 4.55 J

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Answer:

Explanation:

There seems to be a typo in the problem statement.  It says the spring stretches to a shorter length after more mass is added.  Please check the problem statement.  I'm going to do the calculations assuming that the first length should be 11.80 cm and the second length should be 12.05 cm.

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(m + 0.020 + 0.030) g = k (0.1205 - 0.100)

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(m + 0.050) / (m + 0.020) = (0.1205 - 0.100) / (0.1180 - 0.100)

(m + 0.050) / (m + 0.020) = 0.02050 / 0.0180

0.0180 (m + 0.050) = 0.02050 (m + 0.020)

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The pan has a mass of 0.196 kg, or 196 g.

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kakasveta [241]

The statement that describes the magnetic field inside a bar magnet is as follows: it points from north to south.

<h3>What is a bar magnet?</h3>

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