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ivanzaharov [21]
3 years ago
6

Plot √0.5 on the number line.

Mathematics
2 answers:
melamori03 [73]3 years ago
4 0
The correct answer from the above choices is D . 0.7
Paul [167]3 years ago
3 0
It is  roughly 0.707 so it should be very close to .7
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Estimate the sum to the nearest hundreds 166+427
quester [9]
The answer to your question is 600
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The function (f) is given by <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=f%28x%29%3De%5E%28x-11%29%20-8" id="TexFormula1" title="f(x)=e^(x
Vitek1552 [10]
f(x)=e^{x-11}-8\to y=e^{x-11}-8\ \ \ \ |add\ 8\ to\ both\ sides\\\\e^{x-11}=y+8\\\\\ln e^{x-11}=\ln(y+8)\iff x-11=\ln(y+8)\ \ \ \ |add\ 11\ to\ both\ sides\\\\x=\ln(y+8)+11\\\\a)\ \boxed{f^{-1}(x)=\ln(x+8)+11}\\\\b)\ The\ domain\ of\ f^{-1}(x):\\\\x+8 > 0\to \boxed{x > -8\to x\in(-8;\ \infty)}
7 0
3 years ago
Plssssss help me with this math pls
sdas [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is A) 4/663.

Step-by-step explanation:

First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the  probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.

Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king  of clubs) in a deck of cards, the  probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.

Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,

4/52 x 4/51 =

4 x 4/52 x 51 =

16/2652

Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:

16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and

2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.

So, the final answer is 4/663.

4 0
3 years ago
What is the value of 2 over 3 to the power of 0 to the power of -3
Schach [20]

Answer:

((\frac{2}{3})^0)^{-3}=1

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the value of ((\frac{2}{3})^0)^{-3}

Solving:

We know, (a^b)^n = a^{b*n}

((\frac{2}{3})^{0*-3})

(\frac{2}{3})^0

a^0 = 1

so,

(\frac{2}{3})^0=1

So, the value of ((\frac{2}{3})^0)^{-3}=1

5 0
3 years ago
Through which pairs of points is the slope negative? Select all that apply. a. (3, 6) and (10, 6)
xeze [42]
Trial and error on this one try each pair till you find negative slopes
C and D
5 0
3 years ago
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