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jekas [21]
3 years ago
10

The impedance of an inductor zind is determined to be 147 ohms at 2000 hz and its dc resistance rl is 25 ohms. what would be the

inductance of the inductor?
Physics
1 answer:
Margaret [11]3 years ago
5 0
<span>The formula for inductance X is X=2*pi*freq*L. With the given information, we solve for L. The equation becomes: L = X/(2*pi*freq). Substituting the known variables gives us L = 147ohms / (2*pi*2000hz). Solving for L, L equals .0117. The inductance of this inductor is 11.7 mH.</span>
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NeX [460]

The correct answer are

a)  "The number of muscle fibers best determines how powerful a muscle will be"

b) "The more a muscle shortens, the more power it generates."

Reason :

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Multipennate muscles do not produce much power because the tendon branches within muscle .



4 0
3 years ago
Consider the vector field. f(x, y, z) = xy2z2i x2yz2j x2y2zk (a) find the curl of the vector field?
Marat540 [252]

Observe that the given vector field is a gradient field:

Let f(x,y,z)=\nabla g(x,y,z), so that

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Integrating the first equation with respect to x, we get

g(x,y,z) = \dfrac12 x^2 y^2 z^2 + h(y,z)

Differentiating this with respect to y gives

\dfrac{\partial g}{\partial y} = x^2 y z^2 + \dfrac{\partial h}{\partial y} = x^2 y z^2 \\\\ \implies \dfrac{\partial h}{\partial y} = 0 \implies h(y,z) = i(z)

Now differentiating g with respect to z gives

\dfrac{\partial g}{\partial z} = x^2 y^2 z + \dfrac{di}{dz} = x^2 y^2 z \\\\ \implies \dfrac{di}{dz} = 0 \implies i(z) = C

Putting everything together, we find a scalar potential function whose gradient is f,

f(x,y,z) = \nabla \left(\dfrac12 x^2 y^2 z^2 + C\right)

It follows that the curl of f is 0 (i.e. the zero vector).

5 0
2 years ago
1. thomas jefferson proposed using the length (l) of a simple pendulum whose period (t) was exactly 2 seconds as the definition
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L₂ = ?

We know that the time period of the simple pendulum is given by the formula,

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From the above relation, we can write T ∝ √L

T₁ / T₂ = √(L₁/L₂)

Making L₂ from the above relation, we have,

L₂ = (T₂² * L₁)/ T₁² = 2² * 1/ 2² = 1 m

Thus, the length of a 2 sec pendulum is 1 m.

To know more about time period:

brainly.com/question/17350379

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