Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
The equation of a line passing through the origin is
y = mx ( m is the slope )
To find m use the slope formula
m = ( y₂ - y₁ ) / ( x₂ - x₁ )
with (x₁, y₁ ) = (1, 1) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (- 1, - 1) ← 2 points on the line
m = 
= 
= 1
y = x ← is the equation of the line → A
Split up the interval [2, 5] into
equally spaced subintervals, then consider the value of
at the right endpoint of each subinterval.
The length of the interval is
, so the length of each subinterval would be
. This means the first rectangle's height would be taken to be
when
, so that the height is
, and its base would have length
. So the area under
over the first subinterval is
.
Continuing in this fashion, the area under
over the
th subinterval is approximated by
, and so the Riemann approximation to the definite integral is
and its value is given exactly by taking
. So the answer is D (and the value of the integral is exactly 39).
9514 1404 393
Answer:
$13,916.24
Step-by-step explanation:
First, we need to find the value of the CD at maturity.
A = P(1 +rt) . . . . simple interest rate r for t years
A = $2500(1 +0.085·3) = $2500×1.255 = $3137.50
__
Now, we can find the value of the account with compound interest.
A = P(1 +r)^t . . . . . rate r compounded annually for t years
A = $3137.50 × 1.18^9 = $13,916.24
The mutual fund was worth $13,916.24 after 9 years.
You require the Pythagorean Theorem: in a right triangle, the sum of the squares of the legs equals the square of the hypotenuse.In this case 6^2 + 8^2 = 36 + 64 = 100 = 10^2
the hypotenuse is 10.
Answer:
D = 35.8 degrees
Step-by-step explanation:
In this question, we are asked to use calculator to estimate the approximate measure of angle D given its tan value.
From the question, what we have is;
tan D = 0.72
Now to calculate the acute angle D, we will divide through by tan
hence,
D = tan^-1 0.72
or more simply tan^-1 can be called arc tan
Thus, D = arc tan 0.72
D = 35.75
D = 35.8 to the nearest tenth of a degree
