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liq [111]
4 years ago
13

Which relation represents f(x) = 2x - 5?

Mathematics
1 answer:
goblinko [34]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

{(0,-5), (1, -3), (2, -1), (3, 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

If you plug in 1 for x you get f(x)=2(1)-5 which equals 2-5=-3

You would repeat these steps just going up by one number every time

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In order to make 14 oz of a milk-coffee drink with a pH of 5.8, how many ounces of each are required?
muminat
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3 years ago
Emily and Andy each go to a hardware store to buy wire. The table shows the cost y in dollars for x inches of the wire they need
Arisa [49]

There is no table to look at.

Anyways, to solve for the amount they will spend you will have to do some conversions to switch yards and feet to inches. Additonally, there is also a rate missing which is the cost per inch.

So here is what you’ll have to do…

1. Solve for the slope of the equation

2. See if this linear equation has a y-intercept. It can be done by looking at the table to see where x=0 or by solving using y=mx+b where you substitite the slope for “m” and any coordinate that lies on the graph for “y” and “x” to then solve for “b” which is the y-int.

3. Then write out your equation.

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6 0
3 years ago
Solve -24.8 + a = 49.67.
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

A= 74.47

Step-by-step explanation:

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7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A battery manufacturer randomly tests 500 batteries and finds that 3 are defective.
ale4655 [162]
To find this answer, we must first find the percentage of batteries that are defective. We can do this by dividing 3 by 500.

3 / 500 = 0.006

So our percentage of defective batteries is 0.6%.

Now, to find out how many defective batteries would be in a batch of 12000, we just need to multiply the constant (percentage of defective batteries) by the amount in the new batch.

12000 * 0.006 = 72

In a shipment of 12,000 batteries, 72 will be defective, so the correct answer choice would be B.
Hope that helped =)
5 0
4 years ago
Pls help!!!!The probability of hitting a target on a single trial is 40%,Find the probability of hitting the same target 5/8 tim
azamat
Probability hit=40%=4/10
probability no hit=1-p (hit)=1-4/10=6/10
probability= p(hit)+p(hit)+p(hit)+p(hit)+p(hit)+p (no hit)+p (no hit)+p (no hit)
probability=4/10×4/10×4/10×4/10×4/10×6/10×6/10×6/10
=0.0022
( I think but I'm not 100% sure)
6 0
3 years ago
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