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mojhsa [17]
3 years ago
11

Is sugar cane a renewable or non-renewable source of energy? And why?

Physics
2 answers:
baherus [9]3 years ago
8 0
It is renewable because unless we have a whole world drought or all the sugar cane seeds die, we will always be able to reproduce and grow more - therefore renewable!
Fiesta28 [93]3 years ago
6 0
I think it is renewable, cause we can replant them.

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A Tennis ball falls from a height 40m above the ground the ball rebounds
worty [1.4K]

If the ball is dropped with no initial velocity, then its velocity <em>v</em> at time <em>t</em> before it hits the ground is

<em>v</em> = -<em>g t</em>

where <em>g</em> = 9.80 m/s² is the magnitude of acceleration due to gravity.

Its height <em>y</em> is

<em>y</em> = 40 m - 1/2 <em>g</em> <em>t</em>²

The ball is dropped from a 40 m height, so that it takes

0 = 40 m - 1/2 <em>g</em> <em>t</em>²

==>  <em>t</em> = √(80/<em>g</em>) s ≈ 2.86 s

for it to reach the ground, after which time it attains a velocity of

<em>v</em> = -<em>g</em> (√(80/<em>g</em>) s)

==>  <em>v</em> = -√(80<em>g</em>) m/s ≈ -28.0 m/s

During the next bounce, the ball's speed is halved, so its height is given by

<em>y</em> = (14 m/s) <em>t</em> - 1/2 <em>g</em> <em>t</em>²

Solve <em>y</em> = 0 for <em>t</em> to see how long it's airborne during this bounce:

0 = (14 m/s) <em>t</em> - 1/2 <em>g</em> <em>t</em>²

0 = <em>t</em> (14 m/s - 1/2 <em>g</em> <em>t</em>)

==>  <em>t</em> = 28/<em>g</em> s ≈ 2.86 s

So the ball completes 2 bounces within approximately 5.72 s, which means that after 5 s the ball has a height of

<em>y</em> = (14 m/s) (5 s - 2.86 s) - 1/2 <em>g</em> (5 s - 2.86 s)²

==>  (i) <em>y</em> ≈ 7.5 m

(ii) The ball will technically keep bouncing forever, since the speed of the ball is only getting halved each time it bounces. But <em>y</em> will converge to 0 as <em>t</em> gets arbitrarily larger. We can't realistically answer this question without being given some threshold for deciding when the ball is perfectly still.

During the first bounce, the ball starts with velocity 14 m/s, so the second bounce begins with 7 m/s, and the third with 3.5 m/s. The ball's height during this bounce is

<em>y</em> = (3.5 m/s) <em>t</em> - 1/2 <em>g</em> <em>t</em>²

Solve <em>y</em> = 0 for <em>t</em> :

0 = (3.5 m/s) <em>t</em> - 1/2 <em>g t</em>²

0 = <em>t</em> (3.5 m/s - 1/2 <em>g</em> <em>t</em>)

==>  (iii) <em>t</em> = 7/<em>g</em> m/s ≈ 0.714 s

As we showed earlier, the ball is in the air for 2.86 s before hitting the ground for the first time, then in the air for another 2.86 s (total 5.72 s) before bouncing a second time. At the point, the ball starts with an initial velocity of 7 m/s, so its velocity at time <em>t</em> after 5.72 s (but before reaching the ground again) would be

<em>v</em> = 7 m/s - <em>g t</em>

At 6 s, the ball has velocity

(iv) <em>v</em> = 7 m/s - <em>g</em> (6 s - 5.72 s) ≈ 4.26 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
A thin layer of liquid methylene iodide (n = 1.756) is sandwiched between two flat, parallel plates of glass (n = 1.50). What mu
Harrizon [31]

Answer:

t = 96.1 nm

Explanation:

For strong reflection through liquid layer we know that the path difference between two reflected light rays must be integral multiple of wavelength

now we know that the path difference of two reflected light from thin liquid layer is given as

2\mu t - \frac{\lambda}{2} = N\lambda

here we know that

\mu = 1.756

t = thickness of layer

N = 0 (for minimum thickness of layer)

\lambda = 675 nm

now we have

2(1.756) t = \frac{675 nm}{2}

t = 96.1 nm

5 0
3 years ago
All waves change speed when they enter a new medium, but they don't always bend. When does bending occur?
Anastaziya [24]
Bending occurs when one side of the wave enters the new medium before the other side of the wave. ... The bending occurs because the two sides of the wave are traveling at different speeds.
5 0
3 years ago
Describe mechanical energy in your own words
Vlad [161]

Answer:

motion......

movement.....

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On a caterpillars map all distances are marked in kilometers . The caterpillars map shows the distance between two milkweed plan
frutty [35]

Answer:

The distance in kilometers is 4012 ×10^{-6} km.

Explanation:

We know that the conversion of 1 millimeters is equal to 10^{-3} meter. And then the conversion of 1 meter is equal to 10^{-3} km. Then the conversion of 1 millimeter to km will be

1 mm = 10^{-3} m

1 m = 10^{-3} km

So, 1 mm = 10^{-3}×10^{-3} km = 10^{-6} km.

As here the the distance is 4012 mm, then the distance in km will be

4012 mm = 4012 ×10^{-6} km.

So the distance is 4012 ×10^{-6} km.

5 0
3 years ago
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