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fiasKO [112]
3 years ago
5

A company's relevant range of production is 10,000 to 15,000 units. When it produces and sells 12,000 units, its unit costs are

as follows: Amount per Unit Direct materials $ 7.00 Direct labor $ 4.00 Variable manufacturing overhead $ 1.50 Fixed manufacturing overhead $ 5.00 Fixed selling expense $ 3.50 Fixed administrative expense $ 2.00 Sales commissions $ 1.00 Variable administrative expense $ 0.50 If 10,300 units are produced, what is the total amount of indirect manufacturing costs incurred to support this level of production
Business
1 answer:
DENIUS [597]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Total indirect manufacturing cost= $75,450

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

12,000 units:

Variable manufacturing overhead $ 1.50

Fixed manufacturing overhead $ 5.00

<u>First, we need to calculate the total fixed manufacturing overhead:</u>

Total fixed overhead= 5*12,000= $60,000

<u>Now, for 10,300 units:</u>

Total indirect manufacturing cost= 60,000 + 10,300*1.5

Total indirect manufacturing cost= $75,450

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Answer:

The answer is:  Buyers will bid the asset's price down until it equals the present value of income.

Explanation:

As the current asset price is greater than the present value of income, it is overpriced.

So, seller is much willing to sell at this price, however, buyers does not want to buy asset at this price as they only want to purchase it at the price equals to the present value of its income.

So, Buyers will bid the asset's price down until it equals the present value of income which is the level they are willing to buy and also at which the seller is willing to sell also.

5 0
3 years ago
Real per capita GDP in Singapore in 1960 was about $450, but it doubled to about $900.00 by 1977. a. What was the average annual
aleksandrvk [35]

Answer:

4.16%

Explanation:

to calculate Singapore's economic growth rate we can use the future value formula (we could also use the rule of 72 but it is not very exact):

future value = present value x (1 + r) ⁿ

  • future value = 900
  • present value = 450
  • n = 17
  • r = ?

900 = 450 (1 + r)¹⁷

(1 + r)¹⁷ = 900 / 450 = 2

1 + r = ¹⁷√2 = 1.0416

r = 1.0416 - 1 = 0.0416 or 4.16%

6 0
3 years ago
The cost object in a job order system is the ______ and the cost object in a process costing system is the ______.
nordsb [41]

Answer:

The correct word for the blank space is: specific job; process.

Explanation:

The cost object represents the cost of an object or department for which that cost is assigned. For instance, the repairs department of a dealership is a cost object of the repairs employees and the repair supplies. Cost objects are usually traceable thus are treated as direct costs for accounting purposes.

Then, <em>the cost object of a job order is the specific job assigned</em>; <em>while the cost object of a process costing system is the process </em>itself.

6 0
2 years ago
Deep earth extraction inc. operates a facility near estuary bay. discharging waste from the facility into the bay can result in:
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Discharging waste from the facility into the bay can result in a. <u>penalties </u><u>and damages</u>.

Many companies are known to discharge their wastes in an estuary bay. Such companies are subjected to heavy penalties by the government and also as there are aquatic organisms in a bay, the toxic compounds from the water can cause damaging results to the bay ecosystem.

Hence, companies such as Deep earth extraction inc, they discharge waste in the bay, and there are penalties and damages that they have to afford due to the risk they had caused to the bay. All companies should make sure to have a proper disposal system where other life forms and the earth is not damaged by the toxic wastes.

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8 0
1 year ago
A 27-year U.S. Treasury bond with a face value of $1,000 pays a coupon of 6.00% (3.000% of face value every six months). The rep
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

(A) $1,055.35  (B) $2,180.53  (C) $780.07  (D) $412.08.

Explanation:

The tenor of the bond is 27 years i.e. (27 * 2=) 54 periods of 6 months each (n).

Face Value (F) = $1,000

Coupon (C) = 6% annually = 3% semi annually = (3% * 1000 face value) = $30.

The Present Value (PV) of the Bond is computed as follows.

PV of recurring coupon payments + PV of face value at maturity

= \frac{C(1-(1+r)^{-n}) }{r} + \frac{F}{(1+r)^{n}}

A) Yield = 5.6% annually = 2.8% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.028)^{-54}) }{0.028} + \frac{1,000}{(1.028)^{54}}

= 830.25 + 225.10

= $1,055.35.

B) Yield = 1% annually = 0.5% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.005)^{-54}) }{0.005} + \frac{1,000}{(1.005)^{54}}

= 1,416.64 + 763.89

= $2,180.53.

C) Yield = 8% annually = 4% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.04)^{-54}) }{0.04} + \frac{1,000}{(1.04)^{54}}

= 659.79 + 120.28

= $780.07.

D) Yield = 15% annually = 7.5% semi annually.

PV = \frac{30(1-(1.075)^{-54}) }{0.075} + \frac{1,000}{(1.075)^{54}}

= 391.95 + 20.13

= $412.08.

4 0
2 years ago
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