Answer:
C)
region C
Step-by-step explanation:
We have to use what is called the zero-interval test [test point] in order to figure out which portion of the graph these inequalities share:
0 ≤ 2 ☑ [We shade the portion of the graph that CONTAIN THE ORIGIN, which is the bottom portion.]
0 ≥ −3 ☑ [We shade the portion of the graph that CONTAINS THE ORIGIN, which is the left side.]
So, now that we got that all cleared up, we can tell that both graphs share a region where the ORIGIN IS VISIBLE. Therefore region C matches the above inequalities.
I am joyous to assist you anytime.
Answer:
2, -3
Step-by-step explanation:
I think this is right.
Maybe just wait till someone else answers just to makae sure this is exactly the right answer.
Answer:
502.4
Step-by-step explanation:
Use tangent because the side you know and the side with x are both legs.
Do 203/tan(22) and you should get your awnser.
You devide by 203 because the rule is opposite over ajacent and 203 is the opposite side.
Firstly, we'll fix the postions where the 
women will be. We have 
forms to do that. So, we'll obtain a row like:
The n+1 spaces represented by the underline positions will receive the men of the row. Then,
Since there is no women sitting together, we must write that 
. It guarantees that there is at least one man between two consecutive women. We'll do some substitutions:
The equation (i) can be rewritten as:
We obtained a linear problem of non-negative integer solutions in (ii). The number of solutions to this type of problem are known: ![\dfrac{[(n)+(m-n+1)]!}{(n)!(m-n+1)!}=\dfrac{(m+1)!}{n!(m-n+1)!}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdfrac%7B%5B%28n%29%2B%28m-n%2B1%29%5D%21%7D%7B%28n%29%21%28m-n%2B1%29%21%7D%3D%5Cdfrac%7B%28m%2B1%29%21%7D%7Bn%21%28m-n%2B1%29%21%7D)
[I can write the proof if you want]
Now, we just have to calculate the number of forms to permute the men that are dispposed in the row: 
Multiplying all results:
