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Sonbull [250]
3 years ago
10

If a is a negative number, then a(1/a) is equal to -1. If a is a negative number and b is a negative number, then product ab is

equal to a negative number
Mathematics
1 answer:
Firdavs [7]3 years ago
8 0

Both claims are false. In fact, a and \frac{1}{a} are one the multiplicative inverse of the other. This means, by definition of multiplicative inverse, that

a \cdot \dfrac{1}{a} = 1 \quad\forall a \in \mathbb{R}

So, it doesn't matter if a is positive or negative: the multiplication of one number and its inverse will always be 1: for example,

(-2) \cdot \dfrac{1}{-2} = \dfrac{-2}{-2} = 1

Similarly, when you multiply two number, the sign of the product depends on the sign of the factors as follows:

  • (+) \cdot (+) = (+)
  • (+) \cdot (-) = (-)
  • (-) \cdot (+) = (-)
  • (-) \cdot (-) = (+)

So, the multiplication of two negative numbers is a positive number.

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