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8_murik_8 [283]
3 years ago
13

A student observes that for the same net force heavier objects accelerate less which statement describes the correct conclusion?

Physics
2 answers:
rodikova [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: A decrease in acceleration causes the mass to increase.

Explanation:

Let's rewrite this as:

"For a constant force F, we can see that heavier objects accelerate less"

Then, as the mass increases, the acceleration of the object decreases.

This is known as an inverse relationship between acceleration and mass.

By second Newton's law we have that:

F = m*a

Force equals mass times acceleration.

So if the force is constant, we can write it as:

a = F/m.

In this equation, we can see that, if the acceleration decreases and F remains constant, then the mass m must increase (because it is in the denominator)

Then the correct option is:

A decrease in acceleration causes the mass to increase.

ss7ja [257]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

There is a negative correlation between mass and acceleration.

Explanation:

Facundo is wrong. I got this wrong thanks to Facundo!

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What is the concentration of a solution if 65 g of sugar is dissolved into 200 ml of water?
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Answer:

the concentration in g/L 325 while in molarity is 0.6398(M).

Explanation:

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5 0
2 years ago
A plane electromagnetic wave, with wavelength 4.1 m, travels in vacuum in the positive direction of an x axis. The electric fiel
marusya05 [52]

(a) 7.32\cdot 10^7 Hz

The frequency of an electromagnetic waves is given by:

f=\frac{c}{\lambda}

where

c=3.0\cdot 10^8 m/s is the speed of light

\lambda=4.1 m is the wavelength of the wave in the problem

Substituting into the equation, we find

f=\frac{3.0\cdot 10^8 m/s}{4.1 m}=7.32\cdot 10^7 Hz

(b) 4.60\cdot 10^8 rad/s

The angular frequency of a wave is given by

\omega = 2\pi f

where

f is the frequency

For this wave,

f=7.32\cdot 10^7 Hz

So the angular frequency is

\omega=2\pi(7.32\cdot 10^7 Hz)=4.60\cdot 10^8 rad/s

(c) 1.53 m^{-1}

The angular wave number of a wave is given by

k=\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}

where

\lambda is the wavelength of the wave

For this wave, we have

\lambda=4.1 m

so the angular wave number is

k=\frac{2\pi}{4.1 m}=1.53 m^{-1}

(d) 1.03\cdot 10^{-6}T

For an electromagnetic wave,

E=cB

where

E is the magnitude of the electric field component

c is the speed of light

B is the magnitude of the magnetic field component

For this wave,

E = 310 V/m

So we can re-arrange the equation to find B:

B=\frac{E}{c}=\frac{310 V/m}{3\cdot 10^8 m/s}=1.03\cdot 10^{-6}T

(e) z-axis

In an electromagnetic wave, the electric field and the magnetic field oscillate perpendicular to each other, and they both oscillate perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. Therefore, we have:

- direction of propagation of the wave --> positive x axis

- direction of oscillation of electric field --> y axis

- direction of oscillation of magnetic field --> perpendicular to both, so it must be z-axis

(f) 127.5 W/m^2

The time-averaged rate of energy flow of an electromagnetic wave is given by:

I=\frac{E^2}{2\mu_0 c}

where we have

E = 310 V/m is the amplitude of the electric field

\mu_0 is the vacuum permeability

c is the speed of light

Substituting into the formula,

I=\frac{(310 V/m)^2}{2(4\pi\cdot 10^{-7} H/m) (3\cdot 10^8 m/s)}=127.5 W/m^2

(g) 1.53\cdot 10^{-8} kg m/s

For a surface that totally absorbs the wave, the rate at which momentum is transferred to the surface given by

\frac{dp}{dt}=\frac{A}{c}

where the <S> is the magnitude of the Poynting vector, given by

=\frac{EB}{\mu_0}=\frac{(310 V/m)(1.03\cdot 10^{-6} T)}{4\pi \cdot 10^{-7}H/m}=254.2 W/m^2

and where the surface is

A = 1.8 m^2

Substituting, we find

\frac{dp}{dt}=\frac{(254.2 W/m^2)(1.8 m^2)}{3\cdot 10^8 m/s}=1.53\cdot 10^{-8} kg m/s

(h) 8.47\cdot 10^{-7} N/m^2

For a surface that totally absorbs the wave, the radiation pressure is given by

p=\frac{}{c}

where we have

=254.2 W/m^2

c=3\cdot 10^8 m/s

Substituting, we find

p=\frac{254.2 W/m^2}{3\cdot 10^8 m/s}=8.47\cdot 10^{-7} N/m^2

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4 years ago
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