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Luda [366]
3 years ago
6

How does running an electric current through wire cause a magnetic field?

Engineering
1 answer:
Eva8 [605]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

When a charged particle—such as an electron, proton or ion—is in motion, magnetic lines of force rotate around the particle. Since electrical current moving through a wire consists of electrons in motion, there is a magnetic field around the wire.

Explanation:

You might be interested in
The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: 푖푖=40푚푚푚푚푡푡≤0푖푖=푚푚1푒푒−10,000푡푡+푚푚2푒푒−40,000푡푡푚푚푡푡≥0The voltage across the induct
Anni [7]

Answer:

a) The expression for electrical current: i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

The expression for voltage: v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) For t<=0 the inductor is storing energy and for t > 0 the inductor is delivering energy.

Explanation:

The question text is corrupted. I found the complete question on the web and it goes as follow:

The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: i = 40 mA at t<=0 and i = A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t) A at t>0. The voltage across the inductor (passive sign convention) is -68 V at t = 0.

a. Find the numerical expressions for i and v for t>0.

b. Specify the time intervals when the inductor is storing energy and is delivering energy.

A inductor stores energy in the form of a magnetic field, it behaves in a way that oposes sudden changes in the electric current that flows through it, therefore at moment just after t = 0, that for convenience we'll call t = 0+, the current should be the same as t=0, so:

i = A1*e^(-10,000*(0)) + A2*e^(-40,000*(0))

40*10^(-3) = A1*e^(-10,000*0) + A2*e^(-40,000*0)

40*10^(-3) = (A1)*1 + (A2)*1

40*10^(-3) = A1 + A2

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

Since we have two variables (A1 and A2) we need another equation to be able to solve for both. For that reason we will use the voltage expression for a inductor, that is:

V = L*di/dt

We have the voltage drop across the inductor at t=0 and we know that the current at t=0 and the following moments after that should be equal, so we can use the current equation for t > 0 to find the derivative on that point, so:

di/dt = d(A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t))/dt

di/dt = [d(-10,000*t)/dt]*A1*e^(-10,000*t) + [d(-40,000*t)/dt]*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

di/dt = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

By applying t = 0 to this expression we have:

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*0) - 40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*0)

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^0 - 40,000*A2*e^0

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1- 40,000*A2

We can now use the voltage equation for the inductor at t=0, that is:

v = L di/dt (at t=0)

68 = [20*10^(-3)]*(-10,000*A1 - 40,000*A2)

68 = -400*A1 -800*A2

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

We now have a system with two equations and two variable, therefore we can solve it for both:

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

Using the first equation we have:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - A2

We can apply this to the second equation to solve for A2:

-400*[40*10^(-3) - A2] - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 + 400*A2 - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 -400*A2 = 68

-400*A2 = 68 + 1.6

A2 = 69.6/400 = 0.174

We use this value of A2 to calculate A1:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - 0.174 = -0.134

Applying these values on the expression we have the equations for both the current and tension on the inductor:

i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[-10,000*(-0.134)*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*(0.174)*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[1340*e^(-10,000*t) - 6960*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) The question states that the current for the inductor at t > 0 is a exponential powered by negative numbers it is expected that its current will reach 0 at t = infinity. So, from t =0 to t = infinity the inductor is delivering energy. Since at time t = 0 the inductor already has a current flow of 40 mA and a voltage, we can assume it already had energy stored, therefore for t<0 it is storing energy.

8 0
3 years ago
/* Function findBestVacation * duration: number of vacation days * prefs: prefs[k] indicates the rate specified for game k * pla
alexira [117]

Answer:

This is the C++ code for the above problem:

#include<bits/stdc++.h>

using namespace std;

int computeFunLevel(int start, int duration, int prefs[], int ngames, int plan[]) {

if(start + duration > 365) { //this is to check wether duration is more than total no. of vaccation days

return -1;

}

int funLevel = 0;

for(int i=start; i<start+duration; i++) { //this loop runs from starting point till

//start + duration to sum all the funlevel in plan.

funLevel = funLevel + prefs[plan[i]];

}

return funLevel;

}

int findBestVacation(int duration, int prefs[], int ngames, int plan[]) {

int max = 0, index = 0, sum = 0 ;

for(int i=1; i<11; i++){ //this loop is to run through whole plan arry

sum = 0; //sum is initialized with zero for every call in plan ,

//in this case loop should run to 366,but for example it is 11

//as my size of plan array is 11

for(int j=0; j<duration; j++) { // this loop is for that index to index+duration to calc

//fun from that index

sum = sum + prefs[plan[i]];

}

if(sum>max) { //this is to check max funlevel and update the index from which max fun can be achieved

max = sum;

index = i;

}

}

return index;

}

int main() {

int ngames = 5;

int prefs[] = { 1,2,0,5,2 };

int plan[] = { 0,2,0,3,3,4,0,1,2,3,3 };

int start = 1;

int duration = 4;

cout << computeFunLevel(start, duration, prefs, ngames, plan) << endl;

cout << computeFunLevel(start, 555, prefs, ngames, plan) << endl;

cout << findBestVacation(4, prefs, ngames, plan) << endl;

}

The screen of the program is given below.

3 0
3 years ago
Please answer the questions !
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer:

120

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
A ceramic matrix composite contains internal flaws as large as 0.001 cm in length. The plane strain fracture toughness of the co
murzikaleks [220]

Since the applied stress required for failure due to crack propagation is still higher than 550 MPa, the ceramic is expected to fail due to overload and not because of the flaws

Explanation:

<u>Plane -Strain Fracture toughness is calculated as</u>

k_{IC}=fб\sqrt{\pi a}

F=geometry factor of the flaw

б=Stress applied

k_{IC}=Fracture toughness

a=Flaw size

<u>Given that </u>

Internal Flaw,a=0.001cm

Fracture Toughness k_{IC}=45MPa\sqrt{m}

Tensile Strength б=550 MPa

Geometry Factor,f=1

<u>Calculation</u>

An internal Flaw i s 0.001 cm

2a=0.001cm

a=0

6 0
3 years ago
A pump operating at steady state receives liquid water at 20°C, 100 kPa with a mass flow rate of 53 kg/min. The pressure of the
VARVARA [1.3K]

Answer:

Input Power = 6.341 KW

Explanation:

First, we need to calculate enthalpy of the water at inlet and exit state.

At inlet, water is at 20° C and 100 KPa. Under these conditions from saturated water table:

Since the water is in compresses liquid state and the data is not available in compressed liquid chart. Therefore, we use approximation:

h₁ = hf at 20° C = 83.915 KJ/kg

s₁ = sf at 20° C = 0.2965 KJ/kg.k

At the exit state,

P₂ = 5 M Pa

s₂ = s₁ = 0.2965 K J / kg.k    (Isentropic Process)

Since Sg at 5 M Pa is greater than s₂. Therefore, water is in compresses liquid state. Therefore, from compressed liquid property table:

h₂ = 88.94 KJ/kg

Now, the total work done by the pump can be calculated as:

Pump Work = W = (Mass Flow Rate)(h₂ - h₁)

W = (53 kg/min)(1 min/60 sec)(88.94 KJ/kg - 83.915 KJ/kg)

W = 4.438 KW

The efficiency of pump is given as:

efficiency = η = Pump Work/Input Power

Input Power = W/η

Input Power = 4.438 KW/0.7

<u>Input Power = 6.341 KW</u>

5 0
3 years ago
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