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skelet666 [1.2K]
3 years ago
10

Phân tích phương pháp gia công plasma

Engineering
1 answer:
Irina-Kira [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

can you plz write in English language so we can give you answer

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In a case where electrical current leakage from the circuit occurs, the GFCI would do the following:
Jobisdone [24]

Answer:

Sense the current leakage

Trip the circuit

Cut off the electricity

Explanation:

The correct order is -

Sense the current leakage

Trip the circuit

Cut off the electricity

Reason -

First step has to be taken to sense the electric current leakage without it being detected, it cant be dealt with.

The second step consists of tripping the  circuit so at to remove the flow of electricity.

The third step is to Cut the electricity off so to stop the leakage and be safe.

5 0
3 years ago
The acceleration (in m/s^2) of a linear slider (undergoing rectilinear motion) within a If the machine can be expressed in terms
Inga [223]

Answer:

47.91 sec

Explanation:

it is given that \alpha =\frac{1}{4v^{2}}

at t=0 velocity =0 ( as it is given that it is starting from rest )

we have to find time at which velocity will be 3.3 \frac{m}{sec^{2}}

we know that \alpha =\frac{dv}{dt}=\frac{1}{4v^{2}}

4v^{2}dv=dt

integrating both side

\frac{4v^{3}}{3}=t+c---------------eqn 1

at t=o it is given that v=0 putting these value in eqn 1 c=0

so \frac{4v^{3}}{3}=t

when v=  3.3 \frac{m}{sec^{2}}

t=\frac{4}{3}\times 3.3^{3}

=47.91 sec

6 0
4 years ago
A pitfall cited in Section 1.10 is expecting to improve the overall performance of a computer by improving only one aspect of th
Oxana [17]

Answer:

a) For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

b) For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

c) A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

Explanation:

From the info given we know that a computer running a program that requires 250 s, with 70 s spent executing FP instructions, 85 s executed L/S instructions and 40 s spent executing branch instructions.

Part 1

For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

Part 2

For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

And we can quantify the decrease using the relative change:

\% Change = \frac{5s}{55 s} *100 = 9.09\% of reduction

Part 3

A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

8 0
3 years ago
An aircraft is in a steady level turn at a flight speed of 200 ft/s and a turn rate about the local vertical of 5 deg/s. Thrust
notka56 [123]

Answer:

L= 50000 lb

D = 5000 lb

Explanation:

To maintain a level flight the lift must equal the weight in magnitude.

We know the weight is of 50000 lb, so the lift must be the same.

L = W = 50000 lb

The L/D ratio is 10 so

10 = L/D

D = L/10

D = 50000/10 = 5000 lb

To maintain steady speed the thrust must equal the drag, so

T = D = 5000 lb

5 0
3 years ago
Who is father of Engineer?
3241004551 [841]

John Smeatom, U.K. 18th century, was the first self-proclaimed, civil engineer in the 18th century and IS considered “the father of modern, civil engineering”.

hoped this helped! :)

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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