Answer:
Explanation:
a) Power consumption is 4100 J/min / 60 s/min = 68.3 W(atts)
work done raised the potential energy
b) 75(9.8)(1000) / (3(3600)) = 68.055555... 68.1 W
c) efficiency is 68.1 / 68.3 = 0.99593... or nearly 100%
Not a very likely scenario.
Permanent magnet. An induced magnet would be created when a piece of iron (for example) is in contact with a magnet. Temporary magnets would be something like an electromagnet. Bar magnets are permanently magnetic unless we heat them or hammer them to cause their domains to loose alignment.
thanks again and have to go to the store and get some rest I will be there at puno my phone is not working and I have a few questions about the week and I have a few questions about the week and I have a few questions about the week and I have a few questions about the week and I have a few questions about the week and I have a few questions about the week and I have a few questions about the week and I have a few questions about the week and I have a few questions about the week and I have a few questions about you
Answer:
Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional to each other. The wave with the greatest frequency has the shortest wavelength. Twice the frequency means one-half the wavelength. For this reason, the wavelength ratio is the inverse of the frequency ratio.
Answer:
T = 2.83701481512 seconds
Explanation:
Hi!
The formula that you will want to use to solve this question is:
T--> period
L --> length of the pendulum
g --> acceleration due to gravity (9.8m/s^2)
since we know that the mass of the bob at the end of the pendulum does not affect the period of the pendulum, we can go ahead and ignore that bit of information (unless, of course, the weight causes the pendulum to stretch)
so now we can plug in our given info into the formula above and solve!
T = 2*pi * sqrt(2/9.8)
T = 2.83701481512 seconds
*Note*
- I used 3.14 to pi, if you need to use a different value for pi (a longer version, etc) your answer will be slightly different
I hope this helped!