I had this question already I still have my answer the answer is D is the correct answer.
In Newtonian physics, the acceleration of a body is inversely proportional to mass. In Newtonian rotational physics, angular acceleration is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of a frame.
The moment of Inertia is frequently given the image I. it's miles the rotational analog of mass. The moment of inertia of an object is a measure of its resistance to angular acceleration. because of its rotational inertia, you want torque to change the angular pace of an object. If there may be no net torque acting on an object, its angular speed will no longer change.
In linear momentum, the momentum p is the same as the mass m instances of the velocity v; whereas for angular momentum, the angular momentum L is the same as the instant of inertia I times the angular pace ω.
Learn more about angular acceleration here:-brainly.com/question/21278452
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Answer:
so am i ._. 15 not 1 ofc lol
Explanation:
I would say 648858. bc yes