Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:
0.6820
Step-by-step explanation:
Given data
Angle= 47°
Hence we want to find
cos 47°
From calculator
cos 47°=0.681998
to 4 dp
0.6820
We have that
<span>(-3,7) is on the graph of f(x), find the corresponding point for the function
f(x + 5)
we know that
in the transformation f(x)-------> f(x+5)
the point (x.y) in f(x) becomes a point (x-5,y) in f(x+5)
so
(-3,7)-----------> becomes a point (-3-5,7)------> (-8,7)
the answer is
</span>(-8,7)<span>
</span>
Answer:
All real solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
- The given graph is a maximum quadratic function.
- The solution to the graph is where the graph intersects the x-axis.
- We can see from the graph that, the function intersected the x-axis at two different points, hence its discriminant is greater than zero.
- Hence the solution of g(x) are two distinct real solutions.
- The solutions are not whole numbers because the x-intercepts are not exact.
- The solutions are also not all points that lie on g(x)
- The first choice is correct.
