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matrenka [14]
3 years ago
5

How much force do you push down on the Earth with? (Hint: 1kg is about 2 pounds).​

Physics
2 answers:
e-lub [12.9K]3 years ago
6 0

The force with which I push down on the Earth is PRECISELY equal to the force with which the Earth pushes UP on me.  

I weigh EXACTLY the same amount on the Earth as the Earth weighs on me.  Find THAT amount, and you'll have the answer to the question.

(Hint:  1 kg is a mass, and 2 pounds is a force, so they can never be equal.  1kg weighs about 2.2 pounds IF it happens to be on Earth.  But if the same 1kg is on the Moon, then it weighs about 5.8 ounces.  And if it happens to be on Mars, then it weighs about 13.3 ounces.  The same kilogram weighs different weights in different places.)

On a good day, I push down on the Earth with about 890 Newtons of force.  No matter how hard I try, I can never push more or less than that.

Gennadij [26K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 100lbs

Explanation: The Earth pushes you down at 100lbs, so you push down the earth by 100lbs which is enough to keep you firmly attached to the ground and not allow you to jump more than a couple of feet.

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8 0
10 months ago
PHYSICS 50 POINTS PLEASE HELP
tangare [24]

Answer:

One way to look at Newton’s three laws of motion is this:

The third law states what forces are. That is, all forces are interactions between two different objects. If one object is interacting with another, then equal and opposite forces act on each object. So no force acts alone. When you exert a force on something, it is exerting the identical force back on you.

The first and second laws deal with the consequences of the forces that act on an object. The first law says that in the absence of a net force on an object, it simply continues doing whatever it was already doing. If it is at rest, it will remain at rest. If it is in motion, it will continue with that same motion - at constant speed and in the direction it was already traveling.

The second law says what happens if there is a net force on the object. In that case, the object accelerates - either by changing its speed, its direction, or both - in proportion and in the direction of the net force that acts on it. The amount of acceleration depends the object’s mass. That is, the larger the mass the smaller the acceleration for a given net force. The first and second laws can be summarized in the mathematical expression

F = ma

where F is the vector sum of all the forces that act on the object at any given moment (i.e., the net force), m is the mass of the object, and a is the acceleration of the object due to the net force at that moment - and is always in the same direction of the net force.

And notice that in a way, the first law is then “contained” within the second. That is, if the net force is zero on an object, then so is the acceleration. That is, either the object is (still) at rest or, if already in motion, the velocity didn’t change, in either case, the acceleration was zero.

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A clarinet sounds as a closed pipe. if a clarinet sounds a note with a pitch of 375 hz, what are the frequencies of the lowest t
mote1985 [20]
So mathematical harmonics are based around a divergent set of fractions. Sigma(1/n)
with the 1st harmonic being... well 1, or 1 full wavelength.The second harmonic is exactly 1/2 the wavelength of the 1st with the third being 1/3 the wavelength. As Wavelengths go down, frequencies go up in a perfect ratio.

Second Harmonic has double the Frequency of the 1st or base note. Third Harmonic is triple and so on.

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8 0
3 years ago
The potential at location A is 382 V. A positively charged particle is released there from rest and arrives at location B with a
jarptica [38.1K]

Answer: 247.67 V

Explanation:

Given

Potential At A V_a=382\ V

Potential at V_c=785\ V

when particle starts from A it reaches with velocity v_b at Point while when it starts from C it reaches at point B with velocity 2v_b

Suppose m is the mass of Particle

Change in Kinetic Energy of particle moving under the Potential From A to B

q\cdot \left ( V_a-V_b\right )=0.5m\cdot (v_b)^2----1

Change in Kinetic Energy of particle moving under the Potential From C to B

q\cdot \left ( V_c-V_b\right )=0.5m\cdot (2v_b)^2-----2

Divide 1 and 2 we get

\frac{V_a-V_b}{V_c-V_b}=\frac{v_b^2}{4v_b^2}

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V_b=\frac{4}{3}\cdot V_a-\frac{1}{3}\cdot V_c

V_b=\frac{743}{3}=247.67\ V

                     

4 0
3 years ago
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