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Aleks04 [339]
3 years ago
7

Two shuffleboard disks of equal mass, one orange and the other yellow, are involved in an elastic, glancing collision. The yello

w disk is initially at rest and is struck by the orange disk moving with a speed of 4.60 m/s. After the collision, the orange disk moves along a direction that makes an angle of 38.0° with its initial direction of motion. The velocities of the two disks are perpendicular after the collision. Determine the final speed of each disk.

Physics
1 answer:
klemol [59]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

3.62m/s and 2.83m/s

Explanation:

Apply conservation of momentum

For vertical component,

Pfy = Piy

m* Vof (sin38) - m*Vgf (sin52) = 0

Divide through by m

Vof(sin38) - Vgf(sin52) = 0

Vof(sin38) = Vgf(sin52)

Vof (sin38/sin52) = Vgf

0.7813Vof = Vgf

For horizontal component

Pxf= Pxi

m* Vof (cos38) - m*Vgf (cos52) = m*4.6

Divide through by m

Vof(cos38) + Vgf(cos52) = 4.6

Recall that

0.7813Vof = Vgf

Vof(cos38) + 0.7813 Vof(cos52) = 4.6

0.7880Vof + 0.4810Vof = 4.

1.269Vof = 4.6

Vof = 4.6/1.269

Vof = 3.62m/s

Recall that

0.7813Vof = Vgf

Vgf = 0.7813 * 3.62

Vgf = 2.83m/s

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Jill applies a force of 250 N to a machine. The machine applies a force of 25 N to an object. What is the mechanical advantage o
Vinvika [58]

Mechanical advantage is defined as the ratio of output load to the input load. The mechanical advantage of the machine will be 0.1.

<h3>What is mechanical advantage?</h3>

Mechanical advantage is a measure of the ratio of output force to input force in a system,

It is used to obtain the efficiency of forces in levers and pulleys. It is an effective way of amplifying the force in simple machines like levers.

The theoretical mechanical advantage is defined as the ratio of the force responsible for the useful work in the system to the applied force.

Given

applied force = 250 N

Output force = 25

Mechanical advantage = work output / work input

\rm{Mechanical advantage}=\frac{F_O}{F_I}

\rm{Mechanical advantage}=\frac{25}{250}

\rm{Mechanical advantage}=0.1

Hence the mechanical advantage of the machine will be 0.1

To learn more about the mechanical advantage refer to the link;

brainly.com/question/7638820

3 0
2 years ago
how could you prove to a skeptic that the beats are an interference effect that requires both sound sources? test out your metho
podryga [215]

Beats are interference patterns between two tones of different frequencies. To prove the skeptic first, play the recorded audio as there are no beats in it. Now take two sound sources with different frequencies. When both sources are turned on, we hear notes that rise and fall at equal intervals. That's what's called beats.

A frequency beat occurs when two waves with different frequencies overlap, causing alternating cycles of constructive and destructive interference between the waves.

When we tap the table with our finger, then put our ear to the table, and tap the table surface as far as 30 cm from our ear. Then the sound of beats on the table will sound louder when we put our ears on the table. So, it can be concluded that solid objects can conduct sound better than air. This is because the molecules or particles of solid objects are denser than air.

Learn more about the beat's frequency at brainly.com/question/14157895

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
A girl is standing 150m in front of a tall building, fires a shot with starting pistol. A boy standing 350m behind her, hears tw
Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

300 m/s

Explanation:

The difference in time between the two bangs is 1 s.

Thus;

t2 - t1 = 1

We know that distance/time = speed.

Thus;

d2/v - d1/v = 1

Multiply through by v to get;

d2 - d1 = v

Where v is speed of sound in air.

d1 = 350 m

d2 = (150 × 2) + 350 = 650 m

Thus;

v = d2 - d1 = 650 - 350 = 300 m/s

8 0
3 years ago
Two identical point charges are 3.00 cm apart. find the charge on each of them if the force or repulsion is 4.00 x 10^-7. (Use C
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

Charge on each is 2 x 10⁻¹⁰.

Explanation:

We know that Force between two point charges is given b the Coulomb's law as:

F = kq₁q₂/r^2

k = 9 x 10^9

r = 3.00 cm

= 0.03 m

q₁ = q₂

F = 4.00 x 10^-7

Rearranging the formula, we get:

F = k q²/r²

q² = Fr²/k

q² = 4 x 10⁻⁷ x 0.03²/(9x10⁹)

q² = 4 x 10⁻²⁰

q = 2 x 10⁻¹⁰

As there is force of repulsion between the charges, the charges must be both positive or both negative.

3 0
3 years ago
Can you guys help me
andreev551 [17]
B will be the answer
5 0
3 years ago
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