C
Because magnet involves 2 opposite poles so therefore it would have to be C
Answer:
The intensity I₂ of the light beam emerging from the second polarizer is zero.
Explanation:
Given:
Intensity of first polarizer = Io/2
For the second polarizer, the intensity is equal:

Answer:
P = 2 pi (L / g)^1/2
P2 / P1 = (8 / 2)^1/2 = 2
The period would be twice as long or 5.6 sec.
Answer:
B or D
Explanation:
I wanna say B but I don't really know if it's a trick question
my explanation for D is that anvils are usually 110 decibles and ear drums usually are damaged when exposed to 82dbs or higher at a consistant rate so I'd imagine that'd be the answer I hoped this helped