The answer would be B
In the thing above it says she earns 100 each week PLUS 15 each sale she makes there for that being commission
Answer:
f(x) = sec x. tan x
⇔ f(x) = 1/cosx . cosx/sinx
⇔ f(x) = sin x
+) when f(x) is increasing => sin x increases
=> x will increase
+) f(x) is decreasing => x will decrease
+) f(x) is concave up => x ∈ (-pi/2; 0)
+) f(x) concave down => x ∈ (0; pi/2)
Step-by-step explanation:
The point of inflection is calculated by equating the second derivative to zero and determining x from there.
f"(x) = -x²2xsinx² + cosx²(2x) = 0
2xcosx² - 2x³sinx² = 0
2x (cosx² - xsinx²) = 0
2x = 0 ⇒ x = 0
cosx² - xsinx² = 0 ⇒ x = 3.82 (if you use shift+solve in your scientific calculator)
Thus, the function only has 1 point of inflection and it is at x = 0.
Answer:
-6
Step-by-step explanation:
so all you have to do is subtract the 12 from the -24. to get -36.
leaving you with this:
6x = -36
then all you do is divide the 6x from the -36, to get -6.
we are given the ordinary differential equation of dy/dx = 2y+1. The ODE is variable separable which means x and y can be grouped altogether explicitly. In this case, the equation becomesdy / 2y + 1 = dx
1/2 ln (2y + 1) = x + ln Cln (2y + 1) = 2x + ln C2y + 1 = C e 2x y = (C e 2x - 1)/2
The ODE y' + xy = x can be grouped into y' + x(y-1) = 0 'y' / y-1 = -xThis is variable separable