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Nesterboy [21]
4 years ago
5

A typical 100-watt light bulb consumes 100 j of energy per second. If a light bulb converts all of this energy to 400 nm light

Physics
1 answer:
VladimirAG [237]4 years ago
3 0

The missing question is: how many photons are produced per second?

Answer:

2.0\cdot 10^{20}

Explanation:

The energy of a photon is given by

E_1 = \frac{hc}{\lambda}

where

h is the Planck constant

c is the speed of light

\lambda is the wavelength of the photon

In this problem, the photons have wavelength

\lambda = 400 nm = 400 \cdot 10^{-9} m, so each photon has an energy of

E_1 = \frac{(6.63\cdot 10^{-34})(3\cdot 10^8)}{400\cdot 10^{-9}}=4.97\cdot 10^{-19} J

The total energy emitted by the bulb in 1 second is

E = 100 J

Therefore, the number of photons emitted per second is

n=\frac{E}{E_1}=\frac{100}{4.97\cdot 10^{-19}}=2.0\cdot 10^{20}

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Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
3 years ago
Which statement describes why scientific notation is useful? It makes very small numbers into whole numbers. It converts fractio
disa [49]

It makes calculations with very large and small numbers easier.

Scientific notation is a system used in order to It makes calculations with very large and small numbers easier. It is useful as it allows very large number that would take a lot of space to write otherwise, and it allows them to be calculated easier. 10^{23} for example is a incredible large number, but written in this form is immediately understandable and useful for calculation.

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Does plants have prokaryotic cells?
vova2212 [387]
No they have eukaryotic cells
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A man walks 2.6 miles east, then turns and walks 6.7 miles north. What is his resultant
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

Yes cause he walks 6.7 miles

6 0
3 years ago
1. Bone has a Young’s modulus of about
Blababa [14]

#1

As we know that

Y = \frac{stress}{strain}

now plug in all data into this

1.8\times 10^{10} = \frac{1.68 \times 10^8}{strain}

strain = 9.33 \times 10^{-3}

now from the formula of strain

strain = \frac{\Delta L}{L}

9.33 \times 10^{-3} = \frac{\Delta L}{0.54}

\Delta L = 5.04 \times 10^{-3} m

\Delta L = 5.04 mm

#2

As we know that

pressure * area = Force

here we know that

Area = 3.53 \times 11.6 = 40.95 m^2

P = 0.2 atm = 0.2 \times 1.01 \times 10^5 = 2.02\times 10^4 Pa

now force is given as

F = 40.95 \times (2.02\times 10^4) = 8.27 \times 10^5 N

#3

As we know that density of water will vary with the height as given below

\rho = \frac{\rho_0}{1 - \frac{\Delta P}{B}}

here we know that

\Delta P = 2600 atm = 2600 \times 1.01 \times 10^5 = 2.63\times 10^8 Pa

B = 2.3 \times 10^9 N/m^2

now density is given as

\rho = \frac{1050}{1 - \frac{2.63\times 10^8}{2.3 \times 10^9}}

\rho = 1185.3 kg/m^3

#4

as we know that pressure changes with depth as per following equation

P = P_o + \rho g h

here we know that

P = 3 P_0

now we will have

3P_0 = P_0 + \rho g h

2P_0 = \rho g h

2(1.01 \times 10^5) = 1025 (9.81)(h)

here we will have

h = 20.1 m

so it is 20.1 m below the surface

#5

Here net buoyancy force due to water and oil will balance the weight of the block

so here we will have

mg = \rho_1V_1g + \rho_2V_2g

A(0.0476)979 = 922(A)(0.0476 - x) + 1000(A)(x)

46.6 = 43.89 - 922x + 1000x

x = 3.48 cm

so it is 3.48 cm below the interface

5 0
3 years ago
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