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3 years ago

Mrs. Gouveia paid $35 for a dress. She had a $20 coupon and paid 8% taxes on it. What was the original price of a dress?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Sergio039 [100]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

4.4

Step-by-step explanation:

add $35 and$25 you get $55 the multiply by 0.08 and you get 4.4 but i don't think it is right.

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Graph y=x+4 <br> Plz use a graph and show me

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Steven converted $1,000 to ×105,000 for a trip to Japan. However, he spent only ×50,000. During this period, the value of the do

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We were told Steven spent an amount of 50,000. Although the value of the dollar against the yen has changed. So therefore, to calculate the amount of money he spent, we would be needing to divide the amount he spent over the present exchange rate of the dollars to yen.

We then divide the 50,000 by 100 and that equals $500.

Hence, the amount of money spent by Steven is simply $500

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3 years ago

Lines e and f are parallel. The mAngle9 = 80° and mAngle5 = 55°. Parallel lines e and f are cut by transversal c and d. All angl

brilliants [131]

Answer:

$(A)m\angle 2=125^\circ\\(C)m\angle 8=55^\circ\\(E)m\angle 14=100^\circ$

Step-by-step explanation:

The diagram of the problem is drawn and attached.

Given that:

$m\angle 9 =80^\circ\\m\angle 5 =55^\circ$

$m\angle 5+ m\angle 6=180^\circ\\55^\circ+ m\angle 6=180^\circ\\m\angle 6=180^\circ-55^\circ\\m\angle 6=125^\circ\\$Now:\\m\angle 6 = m\angle 2 $(Corresponging angles)\\Therefore m\angle 2=125^\circ\\$

$m\angle 5= m\angle 8=55^\circ $(Vertically Opposite Angles)$

Also

$m\angle 9+ m\angle 10=180^\circ\\80^\circ+ m\angle 10=180^\circ\\m\angle 10=180^\circ-80^\circ\\m\angle 10=100^\circ\\$Now:\\m\angle 10 = m\angle 14 $(Corresponging angles)\\Therefore m\angle 14=100^\circ\\$

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3 years ago

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devlian [24]

10,000-1,000=9,000 -100
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dion flips a coin 20 times and records if it comes up heads. if getting heads is a success, what is the probability of a success

kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

$\frac{1}{2}$

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of success (getting heads) on one roll DOESNT affect other rolls, so we need to find probability of getting a head in a roll.

Probability is defined as the number of favorable outcomes divided by the total number of outcomes.

<em>Here, favorable outcome is getting a head. So, on one roll, getting a head is 1. Also, the total number of outcomes is either a head or a tail. So total number of outcomes is 2.</em>

Thus,

P(Heads) = 1/2

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3 years ago