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Illusion [34]
3 years ago
5

An inclined plane is 30 meters long and 2 meters high what is the mechanical advantage of the inclined plane

Physics
2 answers:
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

the answer is 15

Explanation:

i got it right

Vladimir79 [104]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:MA = 15

Explanation:The mechanical advantage for an inclined plane is MA=l/h or length divided by height. So, plugging these variables into the equation would have it set up like this: MA = 30/2. When 30 is divided by 2 you get your answer for mechanical advantage, which would be 15

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an object of mass m is rotating about a fixed axis with angular momentum l. its moment of inertia about this axis is i. what is
Tems11 [23]

The Kinetic energy would be 1/2IL².

<h3>What is Rotational Kinetic energy ?</h3>

  • Rotational energy also known as angular kinetic energy is defined as: The kinetic energy due to the rotation of an object and is part of its total kinetic energy. Rotational kinetic energy is directly proportional to the rotational inertia and the square of the magnitude of the angular velocity.

As we know linear Kinetic energy = 1/2mv²

 where m= mass and v= velocity.

Similarly rotational kinetic energy is given by = 1/2IL²

 where I- moment of inertia and L=angular momentum.

To know more about the Kinetic energy , visit:

brainly.com/question/29807121

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
The kinetic energy of an object with a mass of 6.8 kg and a velocity of 5.0 m/s is J. (Report the answer to two significant figu
abruzzese [7]

Answer:

\boxed{\sf Kinetic \ energy \ (KE) = 85 \ J}

Given:

Mass (m) = 6.8 kg

Speed (v) = 5.0 m/s

To Find:

Kinetic energy (KE)

Explanation:

Formula:

\boxed{ \bold{\sf KE =  \frac{1}{2} m {v}^{2} }}

Substituting values of m & v in the equation:

\sf \implies KE =  \frac{1}{2}  \times 6.8 \times  {5}^{2}

\sf \implies KE = \frac{1}{ \cancel{2}}  \times  \cancel{2} \times 3.4 \times 25

\sf \implies KE =3.4 \times 25

\sf \implies KE = 85 \: J

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which ramp requires the least amount of force?
irinina [24]
Length 4ft height 1ft
5 0
3 years ago
Assume that a pendulum used to drive a grandfather clock has a length L0=1.00m and a mass M at temperature T=20.00°C. It can be
Sedaia [141]

Answer:

The period will change a 0,036 % relative to its initial state

Explanation:

When the rod expands by heat its moment of inertia increases, but since there was no applied rotational force to the pendulum , the angular momentum remains constant. In other words:

ζ= Δ(Iω)/Δt, where ζ is the applied torque, I is moment of inertia, ω is angular velocity and t is time.

since there was no torque ( no rotational force applied)

ζ=0 → Δ(Iω)=0 → I₂ω₂ -I₁ω₁ = 0 → I₁ω₁ = I₂ω₂

thus

I₂/I₁ =ω₁/ω₂ , (2) represents final state and (1) initial state

we know also that ω=2π/T , where T is the period of the pendulum

I₂/I₁ =ω₁/ω₂ = (2π/T₁)/(2π/T₂)= T₂/T₁

Therefore to calculate the change in the period we have to calculate the moments of inertia. Looking at tables, can be found that the moment of inertia of a rod that rotates around an end is

I = 1/3 ML²

Therefore since the mass M is the same before and after the expansion

I₁ = 1/3 ML₁² , I₂ = 1/3 ML₂²  → I₂/I₁ = (1/3 ML₂²)/(1/3 ML₁²)= L₂²/L₁²= (L₂/L₁)²

since

L₂= L₁ (1+αΔT) , L₂/L₁=1+αΔT  , where ΔT is the change in temperature

now putting all together

T₂/T₁=I₂/I₁=(L₂/L₁)² = (1+αΔT) ²

finally

%change in period =(T₂-T₁)/T₁ = T₂/T₁ - 1 = (1+αΔT) ² -1

%change in period =(1+αΔT) ² -1 =[ 1+18×10⁻⁶ °C⁻¹ *10 °C]² -1 = 3,6 ×10⁻⁴ = 3,6 ×10⁻² %  = 0,036 %

4 0
3 years ago
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Ilia_Sergeevich [38]
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