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NeX [460]
3 years ago
7

A machine can never be 100% efficient because some work is always lost due to what?

Physics
2 answers:
katrin [286]3 years ago
8 0

A machine can never be 100% efficient because some work is always lost due to the lack of materials or equipment that would convert work by 100%. It follows the second law of entropy. The ideal engine is known as Carnot’s engine having a 100% efficiency. So far, no engine has ever gotten to 100%.

kari74 [83]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Friction

Explanation:

Ik cuz i took tha test, i wouldn't lie to fellow students <3

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Please help me with the question below the best answer with an explanation will get brainliest
lesya [120]

Answer:

B

Explanation:

i hope this is correct.

6 0
2 years ago
Air flows upward in the wick of a lantern because of the liquid property called
vovangra [49]

Adhesive.

Adhesive is the force of attraction between molecules of different kind. Liquid flows upward the wick because the adhesive force between the wick and the liquid is higher than cohesive forces in the liquid.

When the adhesive  force  between the wick and the liquid is high we have capillarity taking place. This cause the liquid to move up the wick.

7 0
3 years ago
Three cars (car F, car G, and car H) are moving with the same speed and slam on their brakes. The most massive car is car F, and
Crazy boy [7]

To solve this problem it is necessary to apply the concepts related to Normal Force, frictional force, kinematic equations of motion and Newton's second law.

From the kinematic equations of motion we know that the relationship of acceleration, velocity and distance is given by

v_f^2=v_i^2+2ax

Where,

v_f = Final velocity

v_i = Initial Velocity

a = Acceleration

x = Displacement

Acceleration can be expressed in terms of the drag coefficient by means of

F_f = \mu_k (mg)  \rightarrowFrictional Force

F = ma \rightarrow Force by Newton's second Law

Where,

m = mass

a= acceleration

\mu_k = Kinetic frictional coefficient

g = Gravity

Equating both equation we have that

F_f = F

\mu_k mg=ma

a = \mu_k g

Therefore,

v_f^2=v_i^2+2ax

0=v_i^2+2(\mu_k g)x

Re-arrange to find x,

x = \frac{v_i^2}{2(-\mu_k g)}

The distance traveled by the car depends on the coefficient of kinetic friction, acceleration due to gravity and initial velocity, therefore the three cars will stop at the same distance.

3 0
2 years ago
The velocity time graph of a car shown below a) Calculate the magnitude of displacement of the car in 40 seconds. b) During whic
Gekata [30.6K]

Answer:

a) 0 metres

b) From time 0 s to 10 s , the car was accelerated. Its velocity accelerated from 0m/s to 20 m/s

c) 20 m/s

Explanation:

a) <em>Formula of displacement= velocity x time</em>

time=40 s

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b) The increase in velocity shows that there has been acceleration.

c) The average velocity of the car is =\frac{0+40}{2\\}   {initial velocity + final velocity}

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                                                             =20

Therefore, the magnitude of the average velocity  of the car is 20 m/s

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