The period of oscillation is T = 2 * pi * sqrt ( ( m2/3 + m1) / k )
<h3>What is period of oscillation?</h3>
This is the time in seconds it takes to complete one oscillation. where an oscillation is a repetitive to and fro motion. period if the inverse of frequency and both are basic when calculation motion in simple harmonic motion.
The period of oscillation is given as T
T = 2 * pi * sqrt ( m / k )
where
m = mass on this case mass of the spring will be inclusive to the mass of the block such that we have:
m1 = mass of the block
m2 = mass pf the spring
k = force constant of the spring
including the two masses to the period gives
T = 2 * pi * sqrt ( ( m2/3 + m1) / k )
Read more on period of oscillation here: brainly.com/question/22499336
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Answer:
H = 3.9 m
Explanation:
mass (m) = 48 kg
initial velocity (initial speed) (U) = 8.9 m/s
final velocity (V) = 1.6 m/s
acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s^{2}
find the height she raised her self to as she crosses the bar (H)
from energy conservation, the change in kinetic energy = change in potential energy
0.5m(V^{2} - [test]U^{2}[/tex]) = mg(H-h)
where h = initial height = 0 since she was on the ground
the equation becomes
0.5m(V^{2} - [test]U^{2}[/tex]) = mgH
0.5 x 48 x (1.6^{2} - [test]8.9^{2}[/tex]) = 48 x 9.8 x H
-1839.6 = 470.4 H (the negative sign indicates a decrease in kinetic energy so we would not be making use of it further)
H = 3.9 m
All metals except potassium and sodium, have a property known as malleability. Malleability is the quality of something that can be shaped into something else without breaking. So when aluminium and copper are hammered they will not break. Rather they will change shape and become thin or flat at the area where its hammered.
All Non- metals except diamond are brittle in nature, so when we hammer it , they will break down into pieces. So when ice and glass will be hammered they will shatter into pieces.
Answer:
![[\psi]= [Length^{-3/2}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cpsi%5D%3D%20%5BLength%5E%7B-3%2F2%7D%5D)
- This means that the integral of the square modulus over the space is dimensionless.
Explanation:
We know that the square modulus of the wavefunction integrated over a volume gives us the probability of finding the particle in that volume. So the result of the integral

must be dimensionless, as represents a probability.
As the differentials has units of length
for the integral to be dimensionless, the units of the square modulus of the wavefunction has to be:
![[\psi]^2 = [Length^{-3}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cpsi%5D%5E2%20%3D%20%5BLength%5E%7B-3%7D%5D)
taking the square root this gives us :
![[\psi] = [Length^{-3/2}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cpsi%5D%20%3D%20%5BLength%5E%7B-3%2F2%7D%5D)