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scoundrel [369]
3 years ago
5

On January 1, 2019, Woodstock, Inc. purchased a machine costing $40,000. Woodstock also paid $1,000 for transportation and insta

llation. The expected useful life of the machine is 6 years and the residual value is $5,000. How much is the annual depreciation expense, assuming use of the straight-line depreciation method?
A. $6,100.
B. $5,950.
C. $5,750.
D. $6,000
Business
1 answer:
ruslelena [56]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

D. $6,000

Explanation:

The book value of a new asset includes the purchase price and other related costs that make it ready for use. For Woodstock company, the book value of the new machine will be the buying price of 40,000 plus 1000 transport costs.

Book value = $41,000

The straight-line depreciation method charges equal amounts throughout the life of the asset.

The depreciable amount = asset value - salvage value

=$41,000 - $5000

=$36,000

The depreciation rate = 1/6 x 100

=16.66 %

Annual depreciation = 16.66% x $36,000

=16.66/100 x $36,000

=0.16667 x $36,000

=$6,000

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Rollins Corporation is constructing its marginal cost of capital (MCC) schedule. Its target capital structure is 30 percent debt
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

The After Tax Cost of Debt = 0.072 or 7.2%

Explanation:

The question is to determine the After Tax Cost of Debt for Rolling Stone.

This is carried out as follows

Step 1: When we decide to calculate the Yield to Maturity, it should be noted that Market Value = Par Value

Therefore,

Coupon Rate which is the same as the Yield to Maturity (YTM) = 12%

Step 2: Based on this derivative, therefore,

After Tax Cost of Debt = Yield TO Maturity Rate (1-Marginal Tax Rate)

= 12% (1-40%)

= 0.12 (1-0.4)

The After Tax Cost of Debt = 0.072 or 7.2%

6 0
3 years ago
Ruben, Gerald, and Norma all work for the same company. Gerald and Norma both evaluate the company’s financial picture, but Gera
dmitriy555 [2]

Answer:

The correct answer is (B)

Explanation:

Trust homie

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A person in the organization has the ability to given bonuses to employees as part of a corporate compensation program. This is
skad [1K]

A person in the organization has the ability to given bonuses to employees as part of a corporate compensation program. This is an example of reward power.

<h3>What is reward power?</h3>

This is a term that is used formally in the workplace to refer to  a power that has been given by people to give out rewards to other workers in the workplace.

A supervisor who gives incentives to workers is an example of a person that holds such a power.

Raed more on reward power here:

brainly.com/question/4068765

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7 0
2 years ago
If accrued salaries were recorded on December 31 with a credit to Salaries Payable, the entry to record payment of these wages o
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

c. A debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Cash.

Explanation:

As on December 31, entry to record the expense of Salaries which is accrued and not paid is

Salary A/c Dr.                

  To Salaries Payable

Now on the closing date, of previous year there is a liability outstanding of Salary Payable.

In the next year on 5th January the salary outstanding in opening balance sheet is paid.

For this, the payment will be made and accordingly, cash will be reduced.

Accordingly liability will be reduced for this, liability will be debited.

Therefore, correct option is

c. A debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Cash.

6 0
3 years ago
The fundamental relationship between savings and investment spending in an economy is that: A. savings will increase as investme
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

The correct option is B

<u>Explanation:</u>

In an economy, planned investment spending is always equal to planned saving. If actual saving falls short of (exceeds) planned saving, then actual investment falls short of (exceeds) planned investment.

That is the other part of the saving paradox. If an economy produces too much, such that saving is greater than planned investment, inventory will build up, giving signal to producers to reduce output, to restore equilibrium. Such investment scheme is suitable only to communist countries. Keynes has another investment theory in his liquidity story. But investment theories are equally a posterior.

Therefore, Option B is correct

8 0
3 years ago
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