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3 years ago

This problem makes no sense to me, can someone help?.

Mathematics

2 answers:

xxTIMURxx [149]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

The angle is 120 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

Supplementary angles add up to 180 degrees.

So if our angle is x it's supplement is 180 - x.

So we have the equation:

x = 2(180 - x)

x = 360 - 2x

3x = 360

x = 120 (answer).

Nitella [24]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

you gotta find out what the number of the suplement is and then multiply that by two and then youll get your answer

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There is a bag filled with 3 blue, 4 red and 5 green marbles.

lana [24]

Answer:

35/72

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0

1 year ago

3. Jada has a coin jar containing n nickels and d dimes worth a total of $3.65. The

Ghella [55]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we want to find an equation in the options which is same as the equation given in the question;

The equation we are testing against is;

0.05n + 0.1d = 3.65

What we can do here is divide through by 0.01

So we will have;

0.05n/0.01 + 0.1d/0.01 = 3.65/0.01

= 5n + 10d = 365

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3 years ago

Which angle is an x-intercept for the function y = cos(1)<br> A.0<br> B.2<br> C. £<br> D. 2£

noname [10]

Answer: C. $\pi$

=======================================================

Explanation:

The x intercept always occurs when y = 0.

Use the unit circle to determine that $\cos(\theta) = 0$ when $\theta = \frac{\pi}{2} \text{ and } \theta = \frac{3\pi}{2}$

So if $x = \pi$ , then we have

$y = \cos\left(\frac{1}{2}x\right)\\\\y = \cos\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)\\\\y = \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\\\\y = 0\\\\$

which shows us that $(\pi, 0)$ is the location of one of the infinitely many x intercepts for this function.

3 0

2 years ago

An urn contains balls numbered 1 through 20. A ball is chosen, returned to the urn, and a second ball is chosen. What is the pro

stira [4]

<h2>Answer:</h2>

The probability is:

$\dfrac{1}{400}$

<h2>Step-by-step explanation:</h2>

It is given that:

An urn contains balls numbered 1 through 20.

A ball is chosen, returned to the urn, and a second ball is chosen.

This means that this is a case of a replacement.

Hence, one of the event is independent of the other.

Now we know that the probability to get a particular number of ball is:

$\dfrac{1}{20}$

( Since, there are total 20 balls and a ball of one particular number is just unique )

i.e. $\text{Probability of getting a 8}=\dfrac{1}{20}$

Hence, the probability that the first and second balls will be a 8 is:

$=\dfrac{1}{20}\times \dfrac{1}{20}\\\\\\=\dfrac{1}{400}$

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

PLEASE FOR THE LORD JESUS PLEASE ANSWER ASAP!!!!!!!!!!!!!

ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

Correct option: ninth one.

m∠CQD = 22°

m∠EQF = 33°

Step-by-step explanation:

as the segment BQG is a straight line, its angle is 180 degrees, so the sum of all those 5 angles is equal to 180 degrees. So, we have that:

m∠FQG + m∠EQF + m∠DQE + m∠CQD + m∠BQC = 180°

12 + 3x + 103 + 2x + 10 = 180

5x + 125 = 180

5x = 55

x = 11°

Then, we have that:

m∠CQD = 2x = 22°

m∠EQF = 3x = 33°

3 0

2 years ago