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frozen [14]
2 years ago
9

HURRY PLZ

Physics
2 answers:
Pachacha [2.7K]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Newton’s first law can be explained in terms of inertia because running players due to their momentum have inertia.

Explanation:

Kamila [148]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:Newton’s first law can be explained in terms of inertia because running players due to their momentum have inertia

Explanation:

As football players have speed and mass due to which they carry inertia .A football player has to overcome this inertia by applying net force

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action and reaction are equal in magnitude and opposite direction then why they don't balance each other
Harrizon [31]
Action and reaction are equal in magnitude and opposite direction by they don't balance each other because they don't occur on the same body. Action is involved on one body and reaction is involved on another body.
Hope you understood...
8 0
2 years ago
When a substance undergoes a phase change is still has a definite ...
PIT_PIT [208]
The answer is A, mass.
7 0
3 years ago
In order to determine the velocity, you must know
Naddik [55]
You need to know the speed and direction of object
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The 5-kg block A has an initial speed of 5 m/s as it slides down the smooth ramp, after which it collides with the stationary bl
Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

The coupled velocity of both the blocks is 1.92 m/s.

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass of block A, m_1=5\ kg

Initial speed of block A, u_1=5\ m/s

Mass of block B, m_2=8\ kg

Initial speed of block B, u_2=0

It is mentioned that if the two blocks couple together after collision. We need to find the common velocity immediately after collision. We know that due to coupling, it becomes the case of inelastic collision. Using the conservation of linear momentum. Let V is the coupled velocity of both the blocks. So,

m_1u_1+m_2u_2=(m_1+m_2)V\\\\V=\dfrac{m_1u_1+m_2u_2}{(m_1+m_2)}\\\\V=\dfrac{5\times 5+0}{(5+8)}\\\\V=1.92\ m/s

So, the coupled velocity of both the blocks is 1.92 m/s. Hence, this is the required solution.

8 0
3 years ago
In si units, the electric field in an electromagnetic wave is described by ey = 104 sin(1.40 107x − ωt). (a) find the amplitude
melamori03 [73]
Answers:
(a) B_o  = 0.3466μT
(b) \lambda = 0.4488μm
(c) f = 6.68 * 10^{14}Hz

Explanation:
Given electric field(in y direction) equation:
E_y = 104sin(1.40 * 10^7 x -\omega t)

(a) The amplitude of electric field is E_o = 104. Hence

The amplitude of magnetic field oscillations is B_o =  \frac{E_o}{c}
Where c = speed of light

Therefore,
B_o =  \frac{104}{3*10^8} = 0.3466μT (Where T is in seconds--signifies the oscillations)

(b) To find the wavelength use:
\frac{2 \pi }{\lambda} = 1.40 * 10^7
\lambda =  \frac{2 \pi}{1.40} * 10^{-7}
\lambda =  0.4488μm

(c) Since c = fλ
=> f = c/λ

Now plug-in the values
f = (3*10^8)/(0.4488*10^-6)
f = 6.68 * 10^{14}Hz


6 0
3 years ago
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