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Serjik [45]
3 years ago
5

What is the domain of f(x) = 1/x

Mathematics
1 answer:
Kipish [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

(-∞,0)∪(0,∞)

Step-by-step explanation:

So we know that the domain is whatever X can be. We can do that by graphing the function. When we graph the function, you see that there is always an X value except at 1 point. That one point happens to be when x=0, and when x=0, the function also happens to be undefined (no number can be divided by 0). That is why the graph looks so weird. So, the answer would be

(-infinty,0) U (0, infinity)

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Answer:

a) 34.3%

b) 49%

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find the probability of a sequence of events, we need to multiply each individual probability by the others in decimal form. Therefore, we need to turn these probabilities into decimal form by dividing them by 100 like so..

70% / 100 = 0.70

Now we multiply all of them together and multiply the product by 100 to get the percentage.

0.70 * 0.70 * 0.70 = 0.343

0.343 * 100 = 34.3%

34.3% is the probability of it raining on all three days. Now to find the probability of it raining on two consecutive days we do the same but multiply only 2 probabilities

0.70 * 0.70 = 0.49

0.49 * 100 = 49%

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3 years ago
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Answer:

2/3.

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok, so at first, the probability of the teacher picking a girl is 7/9. And then when she takes one girl, it is less, so the probability is 6/8. Then if she picks 2 more girls, then the probability of that would be 4/6, or 2/3.

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