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Marat540 [252]
3 years ago
11

A car initially traveling at 32.4 m/s undergoes a constant negative acceleration of magnitude 1.70 m/s2 after its brakes are app

lied. (a) How many revolutions does each tire make before the car comes to a stop, assuming the car does not skid and the tires have radii of 0.330 m?
Physics
1 answer:
8090 [49]3 years ago
8 0
<h2>The car tire makes 149 revolutions before coming to stop.</h2>

Explanation:

a) We have equation of motion v² = u² + 2as

Initial velocity, u = 32.4 m/s  

Acceleration, a = -1.70 m/s²  

Final velocity, v = 0 m/s  

Substituting  

v² = u² + 2as

0² = 32.4² + 2 x -1.70 x s

s = 308.75 m  

Distance traveled before stopping is 308.75 m

Radius of tire = 0.330 m

Circumference of tire = 2πx 0.33 = 2.07 m

1 revolution = 2.07 m

\texttt{Number of revolutions = }\frac{308.75}{2.07}=148.91

The car tire makes 149 revolutions before coming to stop.

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A car is traveling at a velocity of 22 m/s when the driver puts on the brakes
Brums [2.3K]

The car’s velocity at the end of this distance is <em>18.17 m/s.</em>

Given the following data:

  • Initial velocity, U = 22 m/s
  • Deceleration, d = 1.4 m/s^2
  • Distance, S = 110 meters

To find the car’s velocity at the end of this distance, we would use the third equation of motion;

Mathematically, the third equation of motion is calculated by using the formula;

V^2 = U^2 + 2dS

Substituting the values into the formula, we have;

V^2 = 22 + 2(1.4)(110)\\\\V^2 = 22 + 308\\\\V^2 = 330\\\\V^2 = \sqrt{330}

<em>Final velocity, V = 18.17 m/s</em>

Therefore, the car’s velocity at the end of this distance is <em>18.17 m/s.</em>

<em></em>

Read more: brainly.com/question/8898885

8 0
2 years ago
Convert the mass to kgs thanks
Natali [406]
Memorize this and you'll be able to do ALL of these:  <em>1  kg = 1,000 g</em>

So if you have some grams, divide the number by 1,000 to get kilograms.

1,000 g = 1.000 kg

500 g = 0.500 kg

100 g = 0.100 kg

50 g = 0.050 kg

20 g = 0.020 kg

10 g = 0.010 kg
4 0
3 years ago
One end of a thin rod is attached to a pivot, about which it can rotate without friction. Air resistance is absent. The rod has
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

6.86 m/s

Explanation:

This problem can be solved by doing the total energy balance, i.e:

initial (KE + PE)  = final (KE + PE). { KE = Kinetic Energy and PE = Potential Energy}

Since the rod comes to a halt at the topmost position, the KE final is 0. Therefore, all the KE initial is changed to PE, i.e, ΔKE = ΔPE.

Now, at the initial position (the rod hanging vertically down), the bottom-most end is given a velocity of v0. The initial angular velocity(ω) of the rod is given by ω = v/r , where v is the velocity of a particle on the rod and r is the distance of this particle from the axis.

Now, taking v = v0 and r = length of the rod(L), we get ω = v0/ 0.8 rad/s

The rotational KE of the rod is given by KE = 0.5Iω², where I is the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis of rotation and this is given by I = 1/3mL², where L is the length of the rod. Therefore, KE = 1/2ω²1/3mL² = 1/6ω²mL². Also, ω = v0/L, hence KE = 1/6m(v0)²

This KE is equal to the change in PE of the rod. Since the rod is uniform, the center of mass of the rod is at its center and is therefore at a distane of L/2 from the axis of rotation in the downward direction and at the final position, it is at a distance of L/2 in the upward direction. Hence ΔPE = mgL/2 + mgL/2 = mgL. (g = 9.8 m/s²)

Now, 1/6m(v0)² = mgL ⇒ v0 = \sqrt{6gL}

Hence, v0 = 6.86 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
A skydiver has a mass of 65 kg.<br> Calculate the weight of the skydiver.
Vinil7 [7]
F=m*a
F=65 kg *9.8 m/s^2
F=637 N (Newtons) — this is the weight
3 0
3 years ago
Why do the north poles of these two magnets repel each other? A. The magnetic field that forms between the two north poles is ne
Anettt [7]

Answer: The magnetic field lines go in directions that cannot combine to form a magnetic field between the two north poles.

Explanation: that was the answer for me I just took it on ape x

4 0
3 years ago
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