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Maslowich
3 years ago
6

We see quite a bit of international trade in the real world. And trade is driven by specialization. So why don’t we see full spe

cialization—for instance, all cars ion the world being made in South Korea, or all mobile phones in the world being made in China?
Choose the best answer from the following choices:
a. More efficient allocation of resources
b. A higher level of material well being
c. Gains from specialization
d. Promoting competition
e. Deterring monopoly
f. Reducing the threat of war
Business
1 answer:
Alenkasestr [34]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

e. Deterring monopoly

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the best choice would be that it is deterring monopoly. Monopolies refer to having full control of an industry and being the the only supplier or producer of a certain good. This is always bad because monopoly's are able to set whatever price they want on their products because there is no competition to steal away customers.

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Which of the following statements about the price elasticity of demand is correct The absolute value of the elasticity of demand
notsponge [240]

Answer:

Demand is more elastic in the long run than it is in the short run

Explanation:

Elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price.

Demand is more elastic in the long run than it is in the short run because in the long run consumers have more time to search for suitable substitutes.

When the absolute value of elasticity of demand is less than one, demand is inelastic.

When the absolute value of elasticity of demand is equal to one, demand is unitary.

When the absolute value of elasticity of demand is greater than one, demand is elastic.

Demand is less elastic the smaller the percentage of the consumer's budget the item takes up. 

The elasticity of demand for a specific brand of good doesn't translate into the elasticity of demand for the good.

I hope my answer helps you

4 0
3 years ago
Madison Company issued an interest-bearing note payable with a face amount of $10,800 and a stated interest rate of 8% to the Me
Aleks [24]

Answer:

$360

Explanation:

Interest Expense associated with the loan is the only operating cash flow. We need to calculate the interest expense first

As the note is issued on August 1, year 1, only  5 months has been passed on December 31, year 1, So we calculate the interest expense for only 5 months.

Interest Expense = Value of Note x Stated Interest rate x 5/12 = $10,800 x 8% x 5/12 = $360

It is assumed that the interest is paid on December 31, year 1.

4 0
3 years ago
Reason for a bimodel distribution
DedPeter [7]

The reason for a bimodel distribution is that a bimodal distribution may occasionally result from merging data from two processes or populations.

<h3>What is a bimodel distribution?</h3>
  • Two modes comprise a bimodal distribution. In other words, the results of two distinct processes are integrated into a single collection of data.
  • The distribution sometimes goes by the name "double-peaked." Consider the distribution of production data over two shifts in a manufacturing facility.
  • Bimodal distributions frequently happen as a result of underlying events.
  • A bimodal distribution, for instance, can be seen in the amount of patrons who visit a restaurant each hour because people typically eat out for lunch and dinner.
  • The bimodal distribution is brought on by the underlying human behavior.
  • If a data set has two modes, it is bimodal. This indicates that no particular data value has the highest frequency of occurrence. Instead, the highest frequency is tied between two data values.

Learn more about bimodel distribution here:

brainly.com/question/14971511

#SPJ9

3 0
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In Florida, any driver less than 21 years of age who is stopped by law enforcement and has a breath or blood alcohol level of .0
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You open up too easily

Explanation:

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