Answer:
c) billions
Explanation:
there are more than 0 stars, because our sun is a star
and there are more than one because the milky way has a lot of suns
there aren't infinite because the milky way is finite it has some volume and even you made the smallest star possible you wouldn't have infinite stars
so the only option is billions
If the acceleration constant..
you can use the formula s = ut + 1/2at²
Known that :
s = ?
u = 0
t = 2s
a = 10ms-²
Then you can apply the formula
s = ut + 1/2at²
s = 0 + 1/2(10)(2)²
s = 5 × 4
s = 20m
Answer : 20m
Explanation :
The gravity can be 9,8 or 10. Also im not sure how people teach you but in my school, if the ball goes down the gravity is positive and not negative thats why i put 10ms-² and not -10ms-²
s = displacement/distance
u = initial speed
a = acceleration
t = time
sorry if im wrong
Answer:
e = 0.0898m
v = 2.07m/s
Explanation:
a) According to Hooke's law
F = ke
e is the extension
k is the spring constant
Since F = mg
mg = ke
e = mg/k
Substitute the given value
e = 1.1(9.8)/120
e = 10.78/120
e = 0.0898m
Hence it is stretched by 0.0898m from its unstrained length
2) Total Energy = PE+KE+Elastic potential
Total Energy = mgh +1/2mv²+1/2ke²
Substitute the given value
5.0= 1.1(9.8)(0.2)+1/2(1.1)v²+1/2(120)(0.0898)²
Solve for v
5.0 = 2.156+0.55v²+0.48338
5.0-2.156-0.48338= 0.55v²
2.36 =0.55v²
v² = 2.36/0.55
v² = 4.29
v ,= √4.29
v = 2.07m/s
Hence the required velocity is 9.28m/s
Complete question:
At a particular instant, an electron is located at point (P) in a region of space with a uniform magnetic field that is directed vertically and has a magnitude of 3.47 mT. The electron's velocity at that instant is purely horizontal with a magnitude of 2×10⁵ m/s then how long will it take for the particle to pass through point (P) again? Give your answer in nanoseconds.
[<em>Assume that this experiment takes place in deep space so that the effect of gravity is negligible.</em>]
Answer:
The time it will take the particle to pass through point (P) again is 1.639 ns.
Explanation:
F = qvB
Also;
solving this two equations together;
where;
m is the mass of electron = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg
q is the charge of electron = 1.602 x 10⁻¹⁹ C
B is the strength of the magnetic field = 3.47 x 10⁻³ T
substitute these values and solve for t
Therefore, the time it will take the particle to pass through point (P) again is 1.639 ns.
Answer:
100 m/s ÷ 8 = 12.5 m/s
Explanation:
You must put multiply (÷)
