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KiRa [710]
3 years ago
11

How is a wavelength measured?

Physics
2 answers:
klasskru [66]3 years ago
6 0
Hey there,

Wavelength is measured from crest to crest so the correct answer will be A.

Hope I helped :)
kenny6666 [7]3 years ago
3 0
I believe the correct answer is A) From crest to crest.
~Silver
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An undiscovered planet, many lightyears from Earth, has one moon in a periodic orbit. This moon takes 23.0 days on average to co
Gelneren [198K]

Answer:

See it in the pic

Explanation:

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7 0
2 years ago
If you help me with the correct answer I will give you the brainlist
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

1. A force is a push or pull upon an object resulting from the object's interaction with another object.  

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
A light source of wavelength λ illuminates a metal with a work function (a.k.a., binding energy) of BE=2.00 eV and ejects electr
slega [8]
<h2>Answer: 1.011 eV</h2>

Explanation:

The described situation is the photoelectric effect, which consists of the emission of electrons (electric current) that occurs when light falls on a metal surface under certain conditions.  

If we consider the light as a stream of photons and each of them has energy, this energy is able to pull an electron out of the crystalline lattice of the metal and communicate, in addition, a <u>kinetic energy. </u>

This is what Einstein proposed:  

Light behaves like a stream of particles called photons with an energy  E:

E=h.f (1)  

So, the energy E of the incident photon must be equal to the sum of the Work function \Phi of the metal and the kinetic energy K of the photoelectron:  

E=\Phi+K (2)  

Where \Phi is the <u>minimum amount of energy required to induce the photoemission of electrons from the surface of a metal, and </u><u>its value depends on the metal.  </u>

In this case \Phi=2eV  and K_{1}=4eV

So, for the first light source of wavelength \lambda_{1}, and  applying equation (2) we have:

E_{1}=2eV+4eV   (3)  

E_{1}=6eV   (4)  

Now, substituting (1) in (4):  

h.f=6eV (5)  

Where:  

h=4.136(10)^{-15}eV.s is the Planck constant

f is the frequency  

Now, the <u>frequency has an inverse relation with the wavelength </u>

\lambda_{1}:  

f=\frac{c}{\lambda_{1}} (6)  

Where c=3(10)^{8}m/s is the speed of light in vacuum  

Substituting (6) in (5):  

\frac{hc}{\lambda_{1}}=6eV (7)  

Then finding \lambda_{1}:  

\lambda_{1}=\frac{hc}{6eV } (8)  

\lambda_{1}=\frac{(4.136(10)^{-15} eV.s)(3(10)^{8}m/s)}{6eV}  

We obtain the wavelength of the first light suorce \lambda_{1}:  

\lambda_{1}=2.06(10)^{-7}m   (9)

Now, we are told the second light source \lambda_{2}  has the double the wavelength of the first:

\lambda_{2}=2\lambda_{1}=(2)(2.06(10)^{-7}m)   (10)

Then: \lambda_{2}=4.12(10)^{-7}m   (11)

Knowing this value we can find E_{2}:

E_{2}=\frac{hc}{\lambda_{2}}   (12)

E_{2}=\frac{(4.136(10)^{-15} eV.s)(3(10)^{8}m/s)}{4.12(10)^{-7}m}   (12)

E_{2}=3.011eV   (13)

Knowing the value of E_{2} and \lambda_{2}, and knowing we are working with the same work function, we can finally find the maximum kinetic energy K_{2} for this wavelength:

E_{2}=\Phi+K_{2} (14)  

K_{2}=E_{2}-\Phi (15)  

K_{2}=3.011eV-2eV  

K_{2}=1.011 eV  This is the maximum kinetic energy for the second light source

7 0
3 years ago
Which name is given to the type of friction that an objects falling through the air experience
andrey2020 [161]
It is called Air resistance
3 0
3 years ago
A block of inertia m is placed on an inclined plane that makes an angle θ with the horizontal. The block is given a shove direct
Wittaler [7]

Answer:

A) d = v² / (2g (μ cos θ + syn θ)     B)    μ = tan θ

Explanation:

Part A

We can work this part with the work and energy theorem, where the work of the friction forces is equal to the energy change of the system.

The work is

       W = fr .d

With the force of friction it opposes the movement

       W = - fr d

The energy at the lowest point is

      Em₀ = K = ½ m v²

The energy at the highest point

      Em_{f} = U = m g y

The height (y) can be found by trigonometry

      sin θ = y / d

      y = d sin θ

     W =  Em_{f} –Em₀

     -fr d = mg d sin θ - ½ m v²

The equation for the force of friction is

      fr = μ N

From Newton's second law

      N - W cos Te = 0

We replace

     -μ (mg cos θ) d - mg d sin θ = - ½ m v²

      d g (μ cos θ + sin θ) = ½ v²

      d = v² / (2g (μ cos θ + syn θ)

Part B

The block is stopped, what is the Angle tet, let's use Newton's second law

      fr - W sin θ = 0       ⇒     fr = W sin θ

      N - W cos θ= 0       ⇒    N = w cos θ

      fr = μ N

      μ (mg cos θ) = mg syn θ

      μ = syn θ / cos θ

       μ = tan θ

7 0
2 years ago
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