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worty [1.4K]
3 years ago
12

Maritza remembers her pin because it is the product of two consecutive prime numbers that is between 1000 and 1500 what is her p

in
Mathematics
1 answer:
oee [108]3 years ago
7 0
<span>So Martizas PIN is 1147
</span><span>
</span>
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. How much of a 30% solution would you need to make 50 mL of a 2% solution?
Butoxors [25]

1.2mL will be needed to make 50 mL of a 2% solution

<h3>Ratio and proportions</h3>

Ratio are written in form of fractions.

If  50mL is required for a 2% solution, hence;

50% = 2mL

0.05 = 2mL

In order to determine the required mL for a 30% solution, we will have;

30% =x

0.03 = x

Find the ratios

0.5/0.3 = 2/x

Cross multiply

0.5x = 2(0.03)
0.5x = 0.6
x = 0.6/0.5

x = 1.2mL

Therefore 1.2mL will be needed to make 50 mL of a 2% solution

learn more on ratio and proportion here: brainly.com/question/12024093

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3 0
1 year ago
On the 40th birthday, Mr. Ramos decided to buy a pension plan for himself. This plan will allow him to claim
Mama L [17]

Answer:

The amount of one-time payment should he make on his 40th birthday to pay off his pension plan is P32,880.77.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Calculation of present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday

The present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PV60 = Q * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV60 = present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday = ?

Q = quarterly claim = P10,000

r = quarterly interest rate = annual interest rate / 4 = 8% / 4 = 0.08 / 4 = 0.02

n = number of quarters = number of years * Number of quarters in a year = 5 * 4 = 20

Substitute the values into equation (1), we have:

PV60 =  P10,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.02))^20) / 0.02)

PV60 = P10,000 * 16.3514333445971

PV60 = P163,514.33  

Step 2: Calculation of one-time payment on his 40th birthday

The one-time payment can be calculated using the formula the following formula:

PV = PV60 / (1 + r)^n ........................ (2)

Where;

PV = Present value or One-time payment = ?

PV60 = present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday = P163,514.33

r = quarterly interest rate = annual interest rate / 4 = 8% / 4 = 0.08 / 4 = 0.02

n = number of quarters from 40th to 3 months after his 60th birthday = (number of years * Number of quarters in a year) + One quarter = (20 * 4) + 1 = 81

Substitute the values into equation (2), we have:

PV = P163,514.33 / (1 + 0.02)^81 = P32,880.77

Therefore, the amount of one-time payment should he make on his 40th birthday to pay off his pension plan is P32,880.77.

7 0
3 years ago
-1/5a+21=23 whats the answer
sp2606 [1]

Answer:

A =  -10

Step-by-step explanation:

Combine multiplied terms into a single fraction find common denominator etc etc.

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLZ HELP! QUICK! WILL MARK BRAINLIEST!!! 20 POINTS!!! A portion of the Quadratic Formula proof is shown. Fill in the missing sta
lorasvet [3.4K]

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

After the third step, take the square root of both sides.

Third Step:

(x+\frac{b}{2a})^2=\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a^2}

Thus, the fourth step is:

\sqrt{(x+\frac{b}{2a})^2}=\sqrt{ \frac{b^2-4ac}{4a^2}} }

The left side cancels:

(x+\frac{b}{2a})=\pm\sqrt{ \frac{b^2-4ac}{4a^2}} }

D.

3 0
2 years ago
A nurse gave an 8 year old child a dose of 6 mL of medicine. What would be the adult equivalent of this dosage
aleksley [76]
Ok read first heheheh where
3 0
2 years ago
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